linda bass Posted December 6, 2011 Report Share Posted December 6, 2011 Jesus "became sin" on our behalf in the sense that He took our sins in His body as he was hanging on the cross. he literally became sin. We "become righteousness" in the sense that we exchange our sins for God's righteousness when we accept Christ. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Commissioned Posted February 2, 2012 Report Share Posted February 2, 2012 Q3. (2 Corinthians 5:21) In what sense did Jesus “become sin” on our behalf? Jesus became "sin" on our behalf in that He took upon Him the sin of mankind. In what sense do we “become righteousness”? When we accept Jesus as Savior we take on His righteousness because He took on our sin. It's an exchange. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wifee Posted August 29, 2012 Report Share Posted August 29, 2012 3a)Jesus had no sin. God made Jesus him to be sin for us, as a substitute for us, he atoned for our sin, was the perfect sacrifice for us to washed,now blemish free, freed from hold of sin.b)God see’s us as united with Christ,justified, righteous,blemish free, his wounds healed us in God’s sight,he gives us his righteousness, the righteous for the unrighteous,it is through his actions not what we do. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
royk Posted January 16, 2014 Report Share Posted January 16, 2014 Q3. (2 Corinthians 5:21) In what sense did Jesus "become sin" on our behalf? In what sense do we "become righteousness" ? Jesus has taken all my sins on his shoulders and died for them. He is my personal savior. Since he has died for ALL my sins, I'm viewed clean or righteous in the eyes of God. For such a wonderful gift, I need to share this with everyone I meet! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WinstonY Posted September 27, 2014 Report Share Posted September 27, 2014 Corinthians 5:21) In what sense did Jesus “become sin” on our behalf? In what sense do we “become righteousness”? Because we cannot not stop sinning God has provided Jesus himself to be the subsidiary for our sin Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WinstonY Posted September 27, 2014 Report Share Posted September 27, 2014 Jesus takes our sin upon himself, wipes us clean , cloaks us in a cloak of righteousness so we are able to come before God in righteous ness and holiness, set apart for service for God. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lighthouse2014 Posted May 21, 2015 Report Share Posted May 21, 2015 Q3. (2 Corinthians 5:21) In what sense did Jesus “become sin” on our behalf? In what sense do we “become righteousness”? Jesus who was with God from the beginning, was God himself in a sense. The Father sent him from heaven to become man, God's only begotten Son and having not known sin, became sin on our behalf. He suffered, died and raised from the dead on the third day. Because of his righteousness, when we believe in him and what he had done for us, we take on his righteousness. Because he was righteous and knew no sin, he became sin for us and bore our punishment, thus his atonement has brought us back to the Father. By our belief in him we take on his righteousness so that we are spotless (without sin) before the Father. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Krissi Posted September 12, 2023 Report Share Posted September 12, 2023 Everyone on this site seems so secure and confident about their theology while I struggle to understand the basics, like substitutionary atonement. Feeling dumb, here! So, in my simple mind, it goes something like this: In the OT, when a Jew sinned -- which they did -- somehow, killing an animal and offering it to God as a sacrifice atoned for those sins. The smell and sight of a burning sacrifice pleased God. The idea that undergirded this is that sin causes a complete break or death with God so that only another death could restore what was lost. (I have no idea why God set it up this way, with blood and death in lieu of sin.) In the NT, after Christ's resurrection, when anyone sinned, killing an animal no longer sufficed. (Here's where I'm confused. If killing and sacrificing an animal pleased God in the OT, why did this stop being effective? Was it because God wanted to extend salvation to all people, not just Jews?) Anyway, God wanted a permanent and effective solution and Christ was that solution. Instead of an animal sacrifice, Christ died for our sins. He was perfect. He was also human. When He died, our sins, in a sense, died with Him. The brutality of His death is not the issue (many people have died brutal deaths). What set him apart was His perfection, willingness to die for those He did not know, being chosen to accomplish this sacrificial task, and, of course, the fact that he was simultaneously man and God. Because of His sacrifice, we have become righteous, just as in the OT Jews felt their sins were forgiven after they had sacrificed an animal. The Jews did what was required of them and believed God's promise to cleanse them. Similarly, all people (not just Jews) can now cling to the promise of God that Christ was the sacrifice that took our sins and erased them in the eyes of God. We are righteous in His eyes because Christ substituted for us as a sacrifice.. I've heard people say that God sees Christians as perfect, that He never even notices our sins. Frankly, I doubt this. I'm sure He sees us as we are, but also knows that through Christ's death, our sins have been paid for. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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