Pastor Ralph Posted January 1, 2013 Report Share Posted January 1, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
t-c Posted February 16, 2013 Report Share Posted February 16, 2013 In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? It says, One like the Son of Man is coming; the Ancient of Day, (God) has given Christ dominion, glory and a kingdom. That all people would know Christ and serve Him. His dominion (reign,authority,rule) will never end and His kingdom can't be destroyed. In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? Son of Man is a Messianic title, when Jesus refered to Himself as The Son of Man, He was fulfilling the prophecy of Daniel 7; a passage the Jewish people of that day would know and be familar. Jesus was proclaiming that He is the Messiah. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hazesyd23 Posted February 17, 2013 Report Share Posted February 17, 2013 Q: In what ways does Daniel's prophesy of the Son of Man outline Christ's return? A: Daniel's prophesy of the Son of Man outlines Christ's return as majestic. Daniel sees Him coming in the clouds with everlasting dominion, which will not pass away and unlike earthly kingdoms, His kingdom will never end. Hallelujah!!! Q: In light of this prophesy, why did Jesus use the title Son of Man rather than "Christ," or "Son of God?" A: Jesus used the the title Son of Man because He truly wanted to convey Himself as human and wanted to fulfill the prophesy of Daniel. Jesus is trying to connect with those He came to save. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bondservantmccue Posted February 17, 2013 Report Share Posted February 17, 2013 In what ways does Daniels prophecy of technology Son of Man outline Christ's return? He used this term where the people would understand who he really was, and by using the quote from Daniel, they would then relize who he was taking about after he had departed from them. In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title "Son of Man" rather than Christ, or Son of God.? Anything He wanted them to know He was a man just as them while here on this earth, the ground was level while he was on earth. I came to die for man. Praise God. Brother Mike McCue Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Delivered Posted February 17, 2013 Report Share Posted February 17, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ's return? Daniel prophesied, one like the son of man will come with the clouds of heaven, he will approach the Ancient of Days, (God Almighty) who will give to him authority, glory and power over all peoples, and His dominion will be everlasting, and it will never be destroyed "OUTLINED" the fact that this Jesus you saw leave, will return just as you saw, fulfilling prophecy that was spoken of the Son of Man, however, when he comes again it will be to rule as the promised Messiah, King of the Jews, bringing peace to Israel and to the world. In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title "Son of Man" rather than "Christ" or "Son of God"? Jesus frequently referred of himself by the title "Son of Man" so that he could fully associate himself with mankind. Because there was not one man on earth worthy enough to cover the sins of the world, worthy enough to do what the blood of bulls and goats could not do, God's Son had to come; he had to come not as “Son of God”, not as the “Messiah” he had to come as the "Son of Man". The “Son of Man” was the only hope for a lost world, he was the only one that could "CHANGE THE HEART OF MAN, AND TO PLACE HIS FATHER'S LAWS ON THEIR MIND, WRITTING THEM IN THEIR HEARTS, so we may say, “WORTHY IS THE LAMB". The Son of Man, the Son of God, God’s Lamb had to come first, so that the Messiah could reign forever and ever. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
etheldma Posted February 18, 2013 Report Share Posted February 18, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ's return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title "Son of Man" rather than "Christ" or "Son of God (A) Daniel say that in a vision at night he look and there before him was like a son of man coming with the clouds of heaven. He were giving all power to all nations,peoples and all language,his dominion were a everylasting dominion that will not pass away,and his kingdom shall not pass away. ( The Lord himself will descend from heaven with a shout and with the trump of God and the dead in Christ shall rise Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wjcargile Posted February 18, 2013 Report Share Posted February 18, 2013 Daniel's prophecy were: The son of man was given authority, glory, and sovreign and power; all peoples of nations and languages worshipped Him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will never pass away, and His kingdom is one that will never be destroyed. Jesus used the Son of Man rather than "Christ" or the Son of God was in accordance of Daniel's vision. Jesus will return in the form of a Man, all will see Him and recognize Him. Thank You Lord for that Glorious Day!!! "You will be Glorified." Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JanMary Posted February 18, 2013 Report Share Posted February 18, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? In the same way as the "rapture" of the church described in 1 Thess 4:16, Daniel saw "One like the Son of Man" coming on the clouds of the Heavens, soon to set up His glorious, Messianic Kingdom on earth for His Millennial reign over all kingdoms, peoples, nations and languages who will serve Him.. In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? When Jesus came to earth, He came as a baby...fully man...fully God. When He returns He will return as Son of Man, victorious Lion of Judah, who was slain as the perfect lamb, sinless perfect Man. All eyes will see Him, the Jews will finally recognize their Messiah! Halleluiah!!! Even so, come Lord Jesus. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lion of Grace Posted February 18, 2013 Report Share Posted February 18, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? Daniel's prophesy outlines Christ's return as "One like the son of man, coming with the clouds of Heaven." He will approach the Ancient of Days and will be led into His presence. He is given authority, glory and sovereign power and all peoples, nations and men of every language will worship Him. His dominion will be an everlasting dominion that will never pass away and His Kingdom will never be destroyed. Jesus used the title Son of Man rather than Christ or Son of God so that we know He understood that He was the prophesied Son of Man in Daniel's passage. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
charisbarak Posted February 19, 2013 Report Share Posted February 19, 2013 They both said He would come with the clouds from heaven. He used "Son of Man" to confirm Daniel's prophecy--like a son of man. He was the Messiah. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanks Posted February 19, 2013 Report Share Posted February 19, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ's return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title "Son of Man" rather than "Christ" or "Son of God"? As mentioned in Daniel 7:14, the Son of Man will Himself descend from heaven and be given all authority, glory and sovereign power. All peoples and every nation will worship Him. His kingdom will last for eternity. This is confirmed later in Daniel 7:27 where we read that He will establish an everlasting kingdom, and all rulers will worship and obey Him. We also read in Rev 20:1-6 that His Kingdom and reign will be established here on earth. Finally after the Lord’s millennial reign He will handover the Kingdom to God the Father and then Jesus Christ Himself will rule over God’s eternal Kingdom forever (1 Cor 15:24-28). Jesus Christ frequently used the title “Son of Man” to refer to Himself. It comes from Daniel’s prophecy, where we have seen that the Son of Man is a heavenly figure who, in the end times, descends from heaven and has all authority and power. Jesus was telling us that He is the Messiah and that all the authority, glory, and sovereign power was conferred on Him by our Heavenly Father and will be fulfilled at Christ’s Second Coming. Jesus told us, "At that time the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and all the nations of the earth will mourn. They will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of the sky, with power and great glory (Matthew 24:30). "When the Son of Man comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, he will sit on his throne in heavenly glory (Matthew 25:31). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Thanking Joan Posted February 20, 2013 Report Share Posted February 20, 2013 Daniel was given a vision of Christ's return. To show us that Christ would return the second time in majesty and glory. Jesus used the title Son of Man in light of the prophesy to reveal to us that He would return again Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Commissioned Posted February 20, 2013 Report Share Posted February 20, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return as He will return in the likeness of His earthly appearance. But this time He returns in given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language will worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed. In light of this prophecy, Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God to show concurrence with the prophecy. As "Christ" He also confirmed to the disciples and the high priest that the prophecy was concerning Him; He is the "Son of Man". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Craig Posted February 20, 2013 Report Share Posted February 20, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? Jesus will return one day from Heaven with a loud command, with the voice of an Archangel, and the trumpet call of God just as Daniel prophecied. Jesus used the title "Son of Man" to identify himself with the same "Son of Man" in Daniel's prophecy. This was one way Holy men and women who studied scripture and listened to Jesus Christ would know what he was talking about and confirming that he was the Christ or Son of God.<p class="ipsLikeBar right clearfix" id="rep_post_80329"> Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
parkerslope Posted February 21, 2013 Report Share Posted February 21, 2013 In what ways does Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ's return? -The Son of Man approached the Ancient of Days in the clouds. -The Ancient of Days gave to the Son of Man authority, glory, and sovereign power. -Then all people of the earth worshiped Him. -Then His Kingdom would last forever. In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title "Son of Man" rather than Christ" or "Son of God"? I believe that Jesus used the title, "Son of Man", so He could relate to people that He was fully man and could relate to the problems of man. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Raph Posted February 22, 2013 Report Share Posted February 22, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ's return? Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outlines Christ's returning by indicating that, He will come with the clouds of heaven and He will have all the authority, glory and soverign power and all peoples will worship Him. In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title "Son of Man" rather than "Christ" or "Son of God"? In the light of Danile's prophecy, Jesus uses the title "Son of Man" rather than "Christ" or "Son of God" to make us clearly understand that, He was the one who was being prophesised. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
haar Posted February 22, 2013 Report Share Posted February 22, 2013 Daniel prophesised that the son of man will come down in the clouds with power just as Jesus Christ himself also declared when he was here on earth. Jesus decided to call himself as son of man instead of son God to fulfill the prophesy about him. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ann66 Posted February 23, 2013 Report Share Posted February 23, 2013 It prepare the people for the coming of the son. I think jesus used this title Son of man because he came from the flesh. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guitar Jim Posted February 24, 2013 Report Share Posted February 24, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? It describes the return of Christ in a similar way to Paul's description. In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? Jesus was fully aware of every prophecy concerning Him. He did his utmost to make sure they were fulfilled and that people knew that. The people of His day were intimately aquainted with Messianic prophecy, Daniel's and Ezekiel's and others' and by using the Son of Man designation, Jesus was planting in their minds the idea He needed to get across . . . that He is the Son of God as well as a Son of Man. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RD35 Posted February 24, 2013 Report Share Posted February 24, 2013 In what ways does Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ's return? As per Daniel’s prophecy Jesus was coming majestically in the clouds of heaven. He was coming with all authority, glory and power. Every person on earth will be worshiping him and his dominion would never pass way and his kingdom would never be destroyed. In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title "Son of Man" rather than "Christ" or "Son of God"? Maybe because Jesus will return in the form of a man, so that all mankind could associate with him. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jonesjp Posted February 26, 2013 Report Share Posted February 26, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ's return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title "Son of Man" rather than "Christ" or "Son of God"? Ans. Daniel states “in my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the ancient of days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.” (Daniel 7:130-14). Because He is the Son of Man implying his humanity. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
csreeves Posted March 4, 2013 Report Share Posted March 4, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man are fulfilled as compared to Revelation for the Son of God becomes the Son of Man to show us he has suffered to show us we can we can believe in his returning to fulfill the second coming. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
antonate Posted March 11, 2013 Report Share Posted March 11, 2013 Christ will come down from heaven with a loud command, with the voice of archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. Christ will return with all authority , glory and sovereign power given to Him. People on earth will worship him and his dominion will be everlasting. His Kingdom will never be destroyed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blezed Posted March 13, 2013 Report Share Posted March 13, 2013 In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? 1. Daniel's prophecy is that the Son of Man coming with the clouds of Heaven. He will have all the authority, glory and soverign power and all peoples will worship Him. In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? 2. He used the title "Son of Man" rather than "Christ" or "Son of God" to fullfill what was prophesied. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trusting God Posted March 18, 2013 Report Share Posted March 18, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ's return? Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outlines Christ’s return in the following way: Jesus will come back or ascend from Heaven in the clouds. The same way He ascended into Heaven. (Daniel 7:13; Mark 13:26-27, 14:62; Acts 1:11; and Revelation 1:11) In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title "Son of Man" rather than "Christ" or "Son of God"? Jesus uses the title “Son of Man” to denote His humanity (He is fully God, and fully man), whereas the “Son of God” refers to His divinity. Jesus is also saying that He is the One who Daniel has prophesied about who will was given “authority, glory and sovereign power” by the Ancient of Days (God). He was also given by God an everlasting dominion and kingdom that will not pass away. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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