linda bass Posted March 18, 2013 Report Share Posted March 18, 2013 Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outlines Christ's return by predicting His descending from heaven at a future time. In light of this prophecy, Jesus used the title "Son of Man", rather than "Christ" or "Son of God" because He wanted to show that He was the fulfillment of Daniel's prophecy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
linda bass Posted March 18, 2013 Report Share Posted March 18, 2013 Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ's returning by predicting His future descension from heaven,surrounded by clouds. In light of this prophecy,Jesus used the title "Son of Man" rather than "Christ" or "Son of God" because He was trying to show that He was to be the fulfillment of Daniel's prophecy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
joy irowa Posted March 22, 2013 Report Share Posted March 22, 2013 jesus will come in the way he left it shows that jesus is human and also divine Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Joeraja Posted May 21, 2013 Report Share Posted May 21, 2013 In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outlines Christ's return as expounded by Paul . Christ will descend from Heaven in all glory and power and people from all nations will witness this and worship him. This will be the beginning of the new everlasting kingdom with Jesus Christ as King In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? Jesus used the title "Son of Man" rather than "Son of God" because he wanted to stress on the human side of His birth. Although divine in nature He came to earth in human form and will come again in the same form . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Old Jerry Posted May 21, 2013 Report Share Posted May 21, 2013 The way that Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outlines Christ’s return is that he saw the son of man coming out of the cloud. Therefore Jesus used the title of “Son of Man” because He was well aware of the prophecy of Daniel and He knew that he was the person. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
van Posted June 1, 2013 Report Share Posted June 1, 2013 Daniel said in his vision at night he saw one like the son of man coming with the cloud from heaven. Daniel called him the Ancient of Days. Jesus use the title son of man, the Messiah, representing His divine nature. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Onerivertrail Posted July 10, 2013 Report Share Posted July 10, 2013 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? What Daniel saw and spoke was what Jesus Himself said in Mark 14:62. Jesus spoke of how He would return! Jesus was born of man even though He was indeed the Son of God. Jesus used this title because of the truth of the statement of His birth and it was written the same way by Daniel as Daniel recorded it when it came from the throne. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sunshine1962 Posted July 30, 2013 Report Share Posted July 30, 2013 Daniel sees Christ returning from heaven in the clouds Christ has been given dominon over the entire earth with authority, glory, and power. His return will be majestic. Christ referred to himself like that, because He wants everyone to see Him as human (so all will know that He suffered the same things we suffered). He also wanted to fulfill Daniel's prophecy and connect with us all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WinstonY Posted October 27, 2014 Report Share Posted October 27, 2014 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? Daniel saw ' one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. ' In the vision the son of man approaches the throne and authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. Because Jesus took this pericope as a model for his coming (Mark 13:26-27) we can see that both Jesus and Paul had read, studied and prayed about this scripture before using it as the model for Christ's coming. We also see that the Son of Man in Daniel says "His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed." (Daniel 7:13-14) This is the we as Christians see the dominion of Jesus and its never ending property. Jesus also used the term Son of Man because of its ambiguity for the religious leaders of the time were looking for reasons to charge Jesus or to be able to discredit him. The nature of this title made it hard for the leaders to pin him down. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JoanG Posted May 14, 2015 Report Share Posted May 14, 2015 It tells of the Son of Man returning on clouds. He is given the power to reign from the Ancient of Days. It gives a brief account of all the power that will be given to Christ. It stresses that he is here for all men in all nations. I feel that Jesus referred to himself as the Son of Man to tie the prophecy of Daniel to the teachings that he was making at the time. Jesus was saying the he was fulfilling the prophecy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lighthouse2014 Posted June 16, 2016 Report Share Posted June 16, 2016 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man receiving authority, glory and sovereign power over all nations and people's, they will come to worship him on that day. The prophecy as seen by Daniel is of the Lord Jesus, the Son of Man, the Son of God, who has received all authority and power in heaven and earth, because of his obedience to the Father, even unto death. God raised him up bodily and he will return to judge the living and the dead. Jesus in light of prophecy used the title Son of Man because he was born of a virgin, lived a holy life, was crucified and buried and God raised him up on the third day, he later ascended into heaven. If he had used the title Son of God, which he was, he probably would not have been able to fulfill prophecy. Crowds would have wanted to make him king over them instead of Rome. This would have not allowed Jesus to suffer for our sins, die on a cross and be glorified by the Father. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Damary Alembi Posted September 6, 2017 Report Share Posted September 6, 2017 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel's prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ's return? Jesus Christ will return by descending from heaven. He will come down from heaven, with a loud command with the voice of the Archangel and with the trumpet call of God and the dead in Christ will rise first. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Reuben Posted November 14, 2021 Report Share Posted November 14, 2021 Q1. (1 Thessalonians 4:16; Daniel 7:13-14) In what ways does Daniel’s prophecy of the Son of Man outline Christ’s return? In light of this prophecy, why did Jesus use the title “Son of Man” rather than “Christ” or “Son of God”? Daniel sees the Son of Man being led into the presence of God and then God giving Him authority over everything and the Son of Man returning on the clouds of heaven. The Son of Man would indicate that Jesus is indeed God in the flesh that came first to sacrifice Himself for our sins, and then returning for His people to be with them in a renewed earth and everlasting kingdom. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jonathan Edwards Posted May 20, 2023 Report Share Posted May 20, 2023 Christ will return on clouds of heaven as specified by Prophet Daniel; Christ ascended to heaven (Acts 1:11). Christ descent will be exactly like His Ascension, actual, bodily, literal, visible with clouds. Men will again see Him with natural eyes (Zechariah 14:1-5; Matthew 24:29-31; 25:31-46; 2 Thessalonians 1:7-10). The title "Son of Man" is very important. It refers to man's dominion of the earth. Christ is the New Adam; He has come to reconcile the worm like state of man to it's original status prior to the fall. The Christological aspects are amazing! Truly Christ died on the Cross; no phantom, not a made up story. Christ bodily rose from the grave; therefore, the Thessalonians have a real hope, such a cause for joy ! Those asleep in Jesus will be resurrected due to Christ, the instrument through which God brings the resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:21; John 5:28). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Krissi Posted November 7, 2023 Report Share Posted November 7, 2023 I do not understand why Jesus referred to Himself as the Son of Man and not Son of God or Christ. Logically, this phrase emphasizes his humanity and identification with ordinary people. It may suggest that He's the epitome/perfection of humanity, too. Jesus made a point to identify Himself with prophetic passages in the Old Testament including names given to events and powers. This includes "Son of Man." Jesus purposely claimed that title for Himself on several occasions. He seemed to be making a point that's lost on me, but was obvious to the listener who tore his robes in horror. Obviously, then, something about the title "Son of Man," was far more suggestive and offensive than it is today. To be honest with you, I really don't understand what "Son of Man" means. The more I think about it, the less I understand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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