Pastor Ralph Posted February 5, 2014 Report Share Posted February 5, 2014 Q1. (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) Why does Paul concede that “it is good for a man not to touch a woman”? What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man’s right? What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pickledilly Posted March 29, 2014 Report Share Posted March 29, 2014 Paul simply wanted believers to understand that the very best way to give oneself to devoted unhindered service to God would be to remain single and abstinent, and thus avoid the additional responsibilities and “distractions” of marriage. However, knowing that humans are created by God as sexual creatures for unity in marriage and procreation, he stated emphatically that he wasn’t instructing people not to marry. But even in marriage there may be occasions of specific need for profound and clear spiritual focus, and Paul allowed for times of consensual sexual abstinence. This isn’t a command, but an allowance for a short-term reason. Paul also confirmed that this physical and emotional relationship in marriage is meant to be a blessing and benefit for wives just as much as husbands. As each properly submits to the other’s “rights”, this intimate union can’t be used as a manipulative tool. Regarding the concept of rights, as I look at the Greek my understanding is actually a somewhat different mindset – that rather than an entitlement to rights, each has a voluntary duty [Gk. word opheilé = “what is due”] to the other (not meant in a negative sense). Husbands and wives certainly can have expectations in the relationship, but I see a subtle but real difference in whether the perspective is that you’re one who willingly gives of self to the other or one who presumes you automatically deserve something from the other. And I believe that difference of attitude is very important. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
IvoryEagle Posted April 5, 2014 Report Share Posted April 5, 2014 (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) Why does Paul concede that "it is good for a man not to touch a woman"? HIS THINKING WILL BE COMPROMISED WITH PLEASURE INSTEAD OF WORSHIP. What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? IT IS GOOD TO BOTH GROW AS A COUPLE THROUGH INTIMACY AND TO RECREATE OTHER HUMANS. How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man's right? COUPLES BODIES ARE MUTUALLY AVAILABLE TO THE OTHER AS MUTUALLY AGREED. What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? NOT ALLOWED AS IT WILL OPEN THE DOOR FOR SATAN... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
van Posted April 5, 2014 Report Share Posted April 5, 2014 Paul states it is good for a man not to touch a woman because you can't minister the way God needs you to with a family, plus it also saves you from divorce later. He teaches sexual intercourse within a marriage is good because God ordain the very first marriage, Adam and Eve. Also, they are to have a family. Both the husband and the wife have the same equal rights to the other body. The husband suppose to please his wife. Sex within marriage can't be used as a bargaining chip to get what you want. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerbrand van Schalkwyk Posted April 6, 2014 Report Share Posted April 6, 2014 Why does Paul concede that "it is good for a man not to touch a woman"? If possible it is better not to get married, because then you can devout yourself fully to God. Then you will not have your focus removed while caring for a family. Jesus taught the same in Math. What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? It is healthy. It is mutual and is there for both partners. How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man's right? He said clearly that the other partner owns your body. He also clearly say we are not to withhold ourselves from each other unless there was mutual agreement for a fixed time. What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? It since wrong. Where is the love in this. Sex is not a weapon. It is an expression of love. I do not withhold love. That points to selfishness and self centredness Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sank T Monius Posted April 6, 2014 Report Share Posted April 6, 2014 1 Corinthians 7:1-6 Q). Why does Paul concede that "it is good for a man not to touch a woman"? A). In this passage Paul is trying to affirm celibacy without affirming their asceticism -- a difficult task. # Q). What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? A). Paul is realistic about the fact that the natural sex drive will seek expression. Marriage is the arena for this, not prostitution. # Q). How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man's right? A). "Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband. The wife hath not power of her own body, but the husband: and likewise also the husband hath not power of his own body, but the wife." (1 Corinthians 7:3-4 KJV) # Q). What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? A). Sex is not to be used as a bargaining chip in a marriage. To do so is to defraud the spouse of what is already his or hers by right. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanks Posted April 7, 2014 Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 Q1. (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) Why does Paul concede that "it is good for a man not to touch a woman"? What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man's right? What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? Paul simply states that it is better not to have a physical relationship, that is, not to get married if one desires to give oneself to the service of the Lord without any distractions. He does not imply that the unmarried state is holier than marriage. About sexual intercourse within marriage he says that marriage is the gift and plan of God, and so is sex the gift and plan of God. To reject both marriage and sex as though they were evil is as much a deviation from the will f God as to indulge in sexual intercourse outside of marriage. When it comes to rights within marriage, he says that neither the husband nor the wife have sole rights over their own bodies. In marriage, each relinquishes their own exclusive right and gives it to the other. Husband and wife belong to each other. The wife has exactly the same rights as the husband. Never must one partner use sex as a bargaining chip within marriage. He feels that such refusal is tantamount to fraud. It also invites Satan to tempt the partners to seek satisfaction elsewhere. Sexual love is a beautiful means to build up the relationship and not a weapon to fight with. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WinstonY Posted April 7, 2014 Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 Q1. (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) Why does Paul concede that “it is good for a man not to touch a woman”? Paul in his letter is responding to questions sent to him by the Corinthian chutch. The questions may be in rebuttal to an earlier letter which has been loss. Who knows? The first question presented here is "It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a women. " Paul is unable to outwardly deny this statement because he himself is celibate at the time. However he immediately counters with " But because of the temptation to sexual immorality is so great it is better for most to have their own wife and women their own husband." (7:2-3) Because of the strong sex drive God has given the race so that it can survive only a select few have been given the gift of celibacy. For others the unfulfilled sex drive is torture and they are unable to stand against the temptation. What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man’s right? Paul was and is a very strong advocate for equality in general but also particularity in marriage. In Galatians 3:28 we read " There is neither Jew or Greek, there is neither slave nor free, their is neither male and female for you are all one in Christ." As such a person should not keep conjugal rights from their partner_for we are all one in Christ. However as a concession he writes "Do not deprive each other except perhaps for a limited time. that you may devote yourself to prayer." (5). Woman and Man , Husband and wife are equal in marriage! What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? Don't bargain for sex. If you do you are a prostitute, male and female are one. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WinstonY Posted April 7, 2014 Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 Regarding the concept of rights, as I look at the Greek my understanding is actually a somewhat different mindset – that rather than an entitlement to rights, each has a voluntary duty [Gk. word opheilé = “what is due”] to the other (not meant in a negative sense). Husbands and wives certainly can have expectations in the relationship, but I see a subtle but real difference in whether the perspective is that you’re one who willingly gives of self to the other or one who presumes you automatically deserve something from the other. And I believe that difference of attitude is very important. I like this! winstony Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Delivered Posted April 7, 2014 Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 Q1. (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) Why does Paul concede that "it is good for a man not to touch a woman" What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man's right? Paul is not wishing everyone would be celibate like him, but they would have “SELF CONTROL” Paul was speaking to a people who came out of a sinfully pagan background, a people that had no boundaries set for them to live by except that of fulfilling the desires of the flesh, whose goals were that "MY" desires and impulses be fulfilled. Paul knew that God's plan, (love one another) will allow the pleasure of sex to be brought up to a higher plain, as seen in the marriage bed, a bed whose goal would take one out of the desire to fulfill "MY" desires, a selfish pagan philosophy, to that of “OURS” Sad for me to say, America appears to be following the same philosophy of pleasing “SELF” – The urgency of my heart is that the church be separate from the philosophy of the world, instead be spiritually discerned in knowing, God has His rules for us to live by, they are a light before our path. The Messiah came that we would live a life that is full in abundance, fullness to overflowing. He came so that we could overcome the flesh, this letter was written to these new converts whose spiritual discernment was deficient, giving great urgency to Paul that they understand ---- God has a set a rules, a guideline for them, for us to live by, so that our lives would be full to overflowing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WinstonY Posted April 7, 2014 Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 Question 6.1 oopds Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JanMary Posted April 8, 2014 Report Share Posted April 8, 2014 Q1. (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) Why does Paul concede that “it is good for a man not to touch a woman”? Paul's writings imply that he believed the return of Jesus to the earth was imminent...at any moment, and to marry would require taking care of the needs of a wife and family, thereby limiting the time which could be spent in spreading the Gospel and planting churches. What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? That the marital sexual relationship helps to avoid the "temptation to impurity and to avoid immorality". v2 .How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man’s right? That conjugal rights are mutual, one to another....each belongs to the other, not himself nor herself What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? That it is not to be used in this way...to manipulate one another (manipulation according to scripture is witchcraft). The Sexual relationship is a gift, not a weapon to wage war or to "buy" other wants. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
parkerslope Posted April 8, 2014 Report Share Posted April 8, 2014 Why does Paul concede that "it is good for a man not to touch a woman"? In that day, the man was more important than a woman. So a man could do what he wanted with any woman. Not so, says Paul. A man is to have his own wife and his devotion is to her. Men have strong "sight oriented" sexual desire, so when a man touches a woman that sensation grows much stronger, usually in the bad way. What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? The husband's body belongs to the wife and the wife's body belongs to the husband and they are not to use intercourse as a bargaining chip. How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man's right? Each has control over the others body and the sexual intercourse is to mutually pleasing. The husband and wife have no right to go to someone else who is not married to them to have pleasure. What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? Paul is teaching the Corinthian Christian's to not use sexual intercourse as way to get their spouse to do something for them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
charisbarak Posted April 9, 2014 Report Share Posted April 9, 2014 Paul is saying that a man that has chosen celibacy or an unmarried man should not touch a woman--have sexual relations with them. Within marriage it is a celebration of their love for each other and to provide progeny. A woman has rights to her husband's body and he to hers. Neither is slave to the other. They may agree to not to participate in sex for a short period of time--if they both agree, for a period of prayer. Sex is not to be used as a way of manipulating one another. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lion of Grace Posted April 10, 2014 Report Share Posted April 10, 2014 "Do not touch" means "to have sexual contact with". Paul is talking about celibacy here and that he views celibacy as "good". Paul was living a celibate life so he could give 100% to his ministry. He could not have fulfilled his ministry the way he did if he had a wife and family. Paul teaches that sexual intercourse within marriage should be mutual. The husband should fulfill his marital duty and the wife should as well. Their bodies belong to each other. Each should be considerate of each other in mutual love. The mutual rights within the marriage that Paul taught were that neither the husband or the wife were to deprive the other or defraud the other partner. Sex is not to be a bargaining chip nor a way to demean another. Sex should be a celebration and an expression of love with two beings coming together as one. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guitar Jim Posted April 14, 2014 Report Share Posted April 14, 2014 Q1. (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) Why does Paul concede that “it is good for a man not to touch a woman”? Paul's particular ministry would have been really hard on a wife if he'd had one. Being away all the time, shipwrecked, imprisoned, spending a year at a time in towns while he planted churches there . . . not the ideal way for a marriage to stay strong. Being married brings with it its own set of problems. It's the hardest thing to live with a woman. It's so rare to find one who isn't manipulative and controlling. That kind of woman will definitely hinder a man's ministry. If a man has the necessary self-control it's OK to be celibate. But to force that upon a man who has the natural sexual desires is plainly wrong. The Roman Catholilc Church in their typical mis-reading of the Scriptures won't let priests marry, despite priests in the Bible and the apostles themselves mostly being married men. No wonder they're in such a mess with law suits resulting from sexual abuse of altar boys and foster children etc. Then the Anglican Church allows their priests to marry and they have a problem with homosexually among priests! I got nothin'. . . What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? Sex within marriage should be for the good of both parties, not just to satisfy the husband. They should not withhold from marital sex except for time when they abstain doe spiritual reasons, and only then my mutual consent. How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man’s right? Paul teaches that a man's body belongs to his wife as much as it does to the man himself and vice versa. What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? Don't do it. Sex should be the physical outpouring of mutual love between a husband and his wife. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rod Beenleigh Posted April 16, 2014 Report Share Posted April 16, 2014 Why does Paul concede that "it is good for a man not to touch a women"? Being in a state of celibacy allows one to be able to devote their life fully to Christ. What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? God created us ,in part, to procreate within the unity of marriage. How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just man's rights? Each spouse is duty bound to give their body to the other in an honourable way to satisfy the others needs. What does the passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? That neither party use sex as a weapon to exploit the desires of the other,ie do not deprive, refuse or cheat . By mutual consent sexual activity could be postponed to allow for prayer or devotions. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
haar Posted April 18, 2014 Report Share Posted April 18, 2014 Q1. (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) Why does Paul concede that "it is good for a man not to touch a woman"? What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man's right? What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? Paul says it is ok to stay without marriage because it distracts people from the service of God. He however cautions that any one that cannot control himself can marry. He teaches that sexual intercourse within marriage should be for the mutual benefits for both without any selfishness. No one should deny one another as each one's body belongs to one another. He teaches that sex should not be a bargaining tool against one onother Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bondservantmccue Posted April 25, 2014 Report Share Posted April 25, 2014 Question 1 (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) What does Paul concede that "it is good for a man not to touch a woman"? You can have more time for the things required to be a separated vessel that can use to the uttermost when you have nothing else distracting your attention and requiring much valuable time. What does he teach about sexual intercourse within a marriage? This is a very important point for a healthy marriage. In a world where sex is protrayed as anything but a very great time between a wife and HUSBAND. It is not about something that I must do just to satisfy my lustful spirit It is a INTIMATE time of relationship building a firm foundation that will last a lifetime. Fulfilling each other's needs should be a joyful time that we look forward to How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man's right? In is not a one-sided relationship. Her body belongs to the husband, just as much as the husband's body belongs to the wife. It is 100 percent in each direction. It should be a time of fulfilling each other's desires with a "want to attitude, not a I have to attitude". WHAT Does THIS PASSAGe teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? Your home is not a whore house. It is the house of Chiristians that keep the things of God in every area of marriage. CHRIST is not for sale, to flirt with the world and HUSBAND and wife should operate in the same frame of mind. The husband belongs to the wife, with no bargains on the table, just as the wife is likewise. Two people can make a family that loves God more than themselves a home that will last a lifetime. (Brother Mike) God Bless my brothers and sisters in the family of God. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Craig Posted April 25, 2014 Report Share Posted April 25, 2014 Marriage entails a lot of responsibilities and focus. Paul as an unmarried man would not be distracted by the married life in carrying out the gospel ministry. In other words Paul as an unmarried man was free to go wherever the Lord send him and do whatever was required which did include life threatening situations. Sexual intercourse within marriage is proper and should remain within marriage. Each married partner is obligated to each other sexually. Husband and wife have authority over each others bodies equally. Therefore, sex is not to used as a bargaining chip within a marriage. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Old Jerry Posted April 28, 2014 Report Share Posted April 28, 2014 Paul’s concedes that “it is good for a man not to touch a woman because that would a man to have more time be doing the Lord’s work. He teaches about sexual intercourse within the marriage so that the evil one won’t be tempting the partner to seek intercourse outside the marriage. He teaches mutual rights within marriage by saying that a husbands body belongs to the wife and the wife body belongs to the husband. Paul teaches us that using sex as a bargaining chip within the marriage should not be done because the spouse’s body belongs to the other spouse. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dixonle Posted June 20, 2014 Report Share Posted June 20, 2014 Q1. (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) Why does Paul concede that “it is good for a man not to touch a woman”? What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man’s right? What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? Paul states that it is not good for a man to touch a "woman" actually relates to outside of marriage because he refers to that in different terminology. Sexual sin infers to sexual immorality outside the marriage bond. Sexual intercourse within marriage is the right between husband wife at times they agree on including those agreed-upon time to abstain. It is also understood in Pauline theology and scripture that neither husband nor wife may use sex as a bargaining chip to get something the other one wants: hence, mutuality in marriage. Each spouse has the right to the pleasure of sex and intimacy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blezed Posted July 7, 2014 Report Share Posted July 7, 2014 Why does Paul concede that “it is good for a man not to touch a woman”? 1. Sometimes it is good not to touch a woman because it entails a lot of responsibility and focus. Celibacy spares a person many troubles. What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man’s right? What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? 2. Paul teaches that sexual intercourse within marriage is mutual consent. Both are to meet the needs of each other. The woman is not there to meet just the sexual needs of the husband. He is to meet hers as well. Neither are to use their body as a bribing chip. To do so is to defraud the spouse of what is already his or hers by right. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JoanG Posted June 2, 2015 Report Share Posted June 2, 2015 Paul agrees that being celibate can be a good thing. He himself has gone this route so that he can do the work that God has created him for. However, sexual intercourse in a marriage is a very powerful type of bond. It joins both bodies in a very spiritually fulfilling way. the joining is also a creation of two becoming one just as in the book of Genesis. Both the husband and the wife need to be sexually fulfilled. It is not to be considered a chore or a bargaining tool for things inside the marriage. There is to be a mutual love and respect for both. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Irmela Posted May 21, 2022 Report Share Posted May 21, 2022 Q1. (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) Why does Paul concede that "it is good for a man not to touch a woman"? What does he teach about sexual intercourse within marriage? How does he teach mutual rights within marriage, not just a man's right? What does this passage teach about using sex as a bargaining chip within marriage? Touching a woman out of wedlock is the same as starting up feelings that can easily lead to having a relationship with her which is only meant for married couples. Intimate touching is definitely a no-no. Sexual intercourse within marriage is healthy for the marriage relationship to remain strong. It is not only for creating children but also for mutual-pleasure. A stronger bond is built between the couple if the sexual relationship is healthy. It is not just a man's right but also a woman's right. Man is for the woman just as much as woman is for the man. Only if there is mutual agreement should they abstain. This does not mean that she is a sex-toy to satisfy his sexual **** either. Sex is not to be used as a bargaining chip. It should be something enjoyed by both partners. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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