Pastor Ralph Posted December 16, 2016 Report Share Posted December 16, 2016 Q2. What did the term “Messiah” mean to the Jews? How does Daniel’s Son of Man exceed this understanding? Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DawnMc13 Posted February 6, 2017 Report Share Posted February 6, 2017 For hundreds of years, Jewish people had been looking forward to the descendant of David, THE MESSIAH, who would deliver them from oppression. Jesus was this long expected MESSIAH, the descendant of David, but His Kingdom was not an earthly physical kingdom but the Eternal Spiritual Kingdom. Jesus use of the title Son of Man because it was an ambiguous phrase, a Hebrew way of saying "human being" , however, Jesus uses it in a different, exalted sense for two reasons. 1.) ACCURACY drawn directly from the imagery of Daniel 7:13-14 2.) AMBIGUITY. so that His enemies were not able to accuse Him of blasphemy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
haar Posted February 6, 2017 Report Share Posted February 6, 2017 Q2. Q. What did the term "Messiah" mean to the Jews? A. It meant to them the one who would come to rule over them and deliver them from the Roman rule. Q. How does Daniel's Son of Man exceed this understanding? A. Daniel's Son of Man meant a lot more, It meant the Messiah Who would deliver His people from satanic bondage of sin and rule in His Kingdom forever. Q. Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? A. He wanted to be ambiguous at first so as not cause the Jews to accuse him of blasphemy and thus distract Him from His main purpose of coming to the world to deliver His people from the bondage of sin. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rosegarden Posted February 6, 2017 Report Share Posted February 6, 2017 On 12/16/2016 at 2:29 PM, Pastor Ralph said: Q2. What did the term “Messiah” mean to the Jews? How does Daniel’s Son of Man exceed this understanding? Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? They interpreted the Kingdom of God as the restoration of David's Kingdom. They thought the Messiah would come and set up an earthly kingdom. In Jesus' mind the Kingdom would be even greater than an enduring earthly dynasty. It would be the Kingdom bestowed by the Ancient of Days on the Son of Man with universal authority, consummate glory, complete rule, and worship of all peoples. Because he was the Son of Man (born of a Virgin and conceived by the Holy Ghost) but if he would say that he was the Messiah or Son of God they would not listen to him, call him a blasphemer and stone him to death, but He had a message, He had a purpose and He accomplished His purpose by dying on the cross for our sins and for the sins of the whole world. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PADODD Posted February 7, 2017 Report Share Posted February 7, 2017 Q2. What did the term “Messiah” mean to the Jews? Kingdom of God and interpreted it as the restoration of David's kingdom. How does Daniel’s Son of Man exceed this understanding? By responding to the high priest, that He is the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power and coming with clouds of heaven, that is worshipped and reigns over all. Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? Because the Son of Man comes from heaven, is judge of all, is glorified, is lifted up, gives himself as an atoning sacrifice for sin and returns to glory. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blezed Posted February 7, 2017 Report Share Posted February 7, 2017 What did the term “Messiah” mean to the Jews? How does Daniel’s Son of Man exceed this understanding? Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? Messiah meant to the Jews one that would set up the restoration of David's kingdom. Daniel's Son of Man exceed this understanding because Jesus is the One who is in single person Son of Man, Messiah, and God, who is worshiped and reigns over all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
van Posted February 7, 2017 Report Share Posted February 7, 2017 The term "Messiah" to the Jews meant the long awaited descendant of David (Jesus Christ) who would deliver them from oppression has finally arrived. Daniel's Son of Man exceeds this understanding because in his night vision he saw a person that look like the Son of Man coming with the clouds of heaven approaching the Ancient of Days. He was led into the Ancient of Days presence and was given all authority, glory and power over all people. Jesus use the title Son of Man because it can have more than one meaning, whereas, Messiah has only one meaning and His ministry would have ended very quickly by His enemies. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jen Posted February 7, 2017 Report Share Posted February 7, 2017 Q2. What did the term "Messiah" mean to the Jews? How does Daniel's Son of Man exceed this understanding? Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? Messiah was predicted in Genesis and throughout the OT. I am not sure when the term Messiah was first thought of in terms of being divine. It seems to me the Jews were under tremendous pressure from persecution from their enemies and they expected the Messiah (meaning anointed one as in the first three kings of Israel were anointed) to destroy their enemies and bring in an era of peace. They thought Jesus was a just a man and yet Peter called Jesus the Christ (also meaning Annointed One). So thinking was developing from the thought he would come from the Davidic line and come as a warrior to deliver them from earthly enemies to God's much broader and more than we could imagine plan. The Kingdom of God with Jesus as its Head. A Kingdom for all who would believe in and love God's Son. A Kingdom where there will be no more sin, our sin natures will be demolished along with all enemies of Jesus the Christ. A Kingdom of eternal life with no more tears, pain, illness, death. Jesus may have used the term Son of Man to not draw attention to himself from religious authorities but once again I see this magnificent, glorious God condescending down to us as our loving Savior, Redeemer, Friend, intercessor, healer and so much more. God Bless! Jen Numbers 6:24-26 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Eilen Posted February 7, 2017 Report Share Posted February 7, 2017 Messiah, to the Jews meant the son of David whom God had promised to send them. He was the one who would establish a kingdom that would endure forever. David sees someone who looks human but is divine, full of glory and honor. He is the divine heir of the Kingdom of God. Jesus uses the term ‘Son of man’ because it shows His humanity. He is both divine and human. In the Gospels Jesus often refers to Himself ‘the Son of Man’ “The Son of Man comes not to serve but to serve and give his life as a ransom for many” Mark 10:45. Jesus is the savior of mankind. He gave his live for our sins. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JanMary Posted February 8, 2017 Report Share Posted February 8, 2017 On 12/16/2016 at 11:29 AM, Pastor Ralph said: Q2. What did the term “Messiah” mean to the Jews? How does Daniel’s Son of Man exceed this understanding? Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? 1. The Jews had been expectantly waiting and looking for the prophesied descendent of King David who was to come and deliver them from Roman rule. 2. Daniel's Son of Man: comes in the clouds, was led into the Presence of God the Father, was given authority, glory and Sovereign power, was worshipped by all people groups, His kingdom was eternal. Daniel was declaring the Son of Man, was the Son of God...the second Person of the Triune God. 3. Jesus was equally Son of God and Son of Man, but preferred the ambiguous way of saying He was a human being. He seemed to prefer demonstrating with His words and miracles Who He was. The religious leaders wanted to stone Him the moment they realized that He was saying He was the Son of God and they stopped listening to His words, saying He was blasphemous. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Santhana David Posted February 8, 2017 Report Share Posted February 8, 2017 Q2. a) What did the term "Messiah" mean to the Jews? We have read and had been taught the term “Messiah” means the “anointed one” or the “chosen one” – and in the days of old the anointed one is a person with a special role assigned by God. As we, have read numerous times in the Old Testament : 1) God told Elijah to anoint Elisha to succeed him as Israel’s prophet (1 Kgs 19:16). 2) Samuel anointed both Saul and David as kings of Israel (1 Sam 10:1; 16:13). All of these men above held “anointed” positions but then it was also predicted that a Deliverer, chosen by God to redeem Israel will come (Isa 42:1; 61:1–3) – so to the Jews, the Deliverer was the Messiah, a holy, anointed one who would deliver the Jews by overthrowing the Romans and lead Israel. How does Daniel's Son of Man exceed this understanding? As written in the Book of Daniel, “In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence.” (Dan 7:13) In my opinion, Daniel’s, term Son of Man surpasses the comprehension of the Messiah, because Daniel imagery of the Son of Man was led to have an audience with God, Who gave Him, “authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him.” Well the Jews during that epoch were very familiar with the phrase, Messiah and to whom it was referred to, but they faintly knew that Jesus, who lived among the Jews of the time was in fact the Messiah, the essence God. They were, as mentioned in Q2a, expecting Messiah would be someone who would redeem Israel by overthrowing the Romans and establish a truly Jewish state. c) Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? Basically, I think it was because the Jewish authorities would have brought to a halt Jesus’ approach to spread the Good News. They would have had Him arrested for blasphemy before His mission was completed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanks Posted February 9, 2017 Report Share Posted February 9, 2017 Q2. What did the term "Messiah" mean to the Jews? How does Daniel's Son of Man exceed this understanding? Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? The Jews understood the Messiah (the Anointed One) to be as the son of David, a warrior-prince who would expel the hated Romans from Israel and establish a kingdom in which they would have dominion over the world. Daniel’s Son of Man exceeds the Jewish understanding in all ways, since we know that Jesus is the One to establish a universal dominion. Daniel sees the Son of Man very much as He is described in Revelation - as the One possessing all power in heaven and on earth and who takes the seven-sealed book from the hands of the One seated upon the throne. He is also acknowledged there as the only one in the history of mankind who is worthy to open the book and to unfold the seals. Daniel sees Him coming with the clouds of heaven to the Ancient of Days, and this can only be our Lord Jesus that he is speaking about. He was crowned king and given power and glory, so that all people of every nation and race would serve Him. He will rule forever, and His kingdom is eternal, never to be destroyed. Although He is The Messiah and the Son of God, Jesus uses the title Son of Man, since this title, as used in Daniel 7:13-14, also perfectly describes who He is. Besides it has more than one possible meaning, and unlike Messiah or Son of God, will not antagonize the Jews to accuse Jesus of blasphemy, and thereby cut short His ministry on earth. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zilka Posted February 9, 2017 Report Share Posted February 9, 2017 Q2 - Messiah would deliver them from oppression and the reign of Messiah is the Son of David - Hebrew way of saying Human being. - Because Jesus is one who is single person son of man, for Example when he responds to the high Priest during his trial. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Debra Grant Posted February 10, 2017 Report Share Posted February 10, 2017 Q2. What did the term "Messiah" mean to the Jews? How does Daniel's Son of Man exceed this understanding? Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? 1. He is the promised and expected deliverer of the Jewish people. A king who will be sent by God to save the Jews. Christianity : Jesus Christ. : a person who is expected to save people from a very bad situation. 2. The Kingdom he had in mind was the Kingdom bestowed by the Ancient of Days upon the Son of Man with universal authority, consummate glory, complete rule, and the worship of all peoples. 3. Jesus is the One who is in single person Son of Man, Messiah, and God, who is worshiped and reigns over all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lighthouse2014 Posted February 12, 2017 Report Share Posted February 12, 2017 On 12/16/2016 at 1:29 PM, Pastor Ralph said: Q2. What did the term “Messiah” mean to the Jews? How does Daniel’s Son of Man exceed this understanding? Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? The term "Messiah" was to the Jews a person who would come and restore Israel back to the days as in the Davidic dynasty. Daniel's "Son of Man' exceeds this understanding because he see's the "Son" before the Ancient of Day's where he receives authority, glory and victory. He would be coming back on the clouds of heaven. Jesus uses the term "Son of Man" rather than "Son of God" because his enemies would seize him for being blasphemous. He would not be able to proclaim the word of God if he was apprehended. He would not be able to travel about declaring the good news of the Kingdom of heaven. S Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Old Jerry Posted February 14, 2017 Report Share Posted February 14, 2017 The “Messiah” to the Jews meant that someone was going to save them from the Romans. Daniel’s Son of Man exceed this understanding because He came to save the whole world especially their souls if they would believe in Him. Jesus primarily used the term Son of Man instead of Messiah or Son of God so that the Jews would not turn on Him and stone Him to death before He could get His message out. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WinstonY Posted February 27, 2017 Report Share Posted February 27, 2017 Q2. What did the term “Messiah” mean to the Jews? How does Daniel’s Son of Man exceed this understanding? Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? Because many of the Jews had no concept off a resurrection or the term life they were not able to interpret the term Messiah. To the Jews the term Messiah was an Earthly King who would be similar and more powerful than David. This Earthly King would be very powerful and would sweep kingdoms and Empires before then as is Jews controlled in the world. David's son of man exceeded this interpretation off the Jews because the son of man coming on a cloud was not an Earthly King but a Heavenly King with special powers and privileges. Jesus used the term son of man for several reasons: 1. Because the term of Son of Man for the Jewish language indicated a human being it was therefor quite ambiguous and the authorities were not able to accuse Jesus of blasphemy. 2. The concept which Jesus had of the Messiah was very different from that of the Jews; so Jesus introduce the term son of man so that he could gradually teach the disciples and all who would listen that he was the Messiah, but a very a different type of Messiah then what was expected. He was the suffering servant off Isaiah and he came to serve not to be served. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stanley Tavaziva Posted February 28, 2017 Report Share Posted February 28, 2017 The Messiah is the promised deliverer of the Jewish nation prophesied in the Hebrew Bible. Jesus is the One who is in single person Son of Man, Messiah, and God, who is worshipped and reigns over all. The Son of Man gives himself as an atoning sacrifice for sin Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Eager Bver Posted March 7, 2017 Report Share Posted March 7, 2017 Q2. What did the term “Messiah” mean to the Jews? He would defeat their enemy and they would rule their country. How does Daniel’s Son of Man exceed this understanding? Jesus declares that He will be seated at the right hand of power and coming in the clouds. Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? He would have been crucified prematurely as He was the one. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ganti Vivek Posted March 15, 2017 Report Share Posted March 15, 2017 1. Messiah means to Jews a King who will come from the King David's family a earthly powerful king who will deliver them from the enemy rule and establish a powerful kingdom again because at present they do not have king and kingdom. 2.Daniel's Son of Man exceeded this understanding, because the Jews were thinking of a Jewish King for the Israel nation, but here we see that he has come over to rule all the nations of the world. 3. Jesus used primarily the word Son of Man rather than Messiah because it is leading to blasphemy to the Jewish people and they will not allow Him to spread the word of God and the salvation peacefully. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Uncle Dave Posted May 16, 2017 Report Share Posted May 16, 2017 What did the term "Messiah" mean to the Jews? To the Jews, they believed the Messiah was coming to restore Israel and sit on the throne, only as a descendant of David and not, in reality, God. How does Daniel's Son of Man exceed this understanding? Daniel’s Son of Man passed this idea up in the way that He came to forgive the sins of the whole world (including the Gentiles) and not just Israel. Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? Jesus used this title as a show of humility, along with the fact that His ministry would have been cut short long before it’s time had He gone around using the title “Son of God”. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Annie343 Posted May 26, 2017 Report Share Posted May 26, 2017 Meaning: restoration of Israel with power to destroy their enemies Exceed: all will see Him; Jesus will be seated in heaven; given authority, power and glory Title: the phrase was non-threatening to the religious leaders, therefore, they will not seek to kill Him at that time; they really didn't understand the importance of the title Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ms. Joanne Posted August 20, 2017 Report Share Posted August 20, 2017 On 12/16/2016 at 11:29 AM, Pastor Ralph said: Q2. What did the term “Messiah” mean to the Jews? How does Daniel’s Son of Man exceed this understanding? Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? To the Jews Messiah meant the king an earthly king. Daniel's Son of Man goes beyond an earthly king. The Son of Man is our heavenly king one who's sits at the right hand of the Ancient of Days. In the political times if he were to use the Son of God it would set him up to be hounded by the political leadership. Also, I believe he is referring to himself as fully human ( born of an earthly mom and dad) and fully God ( he comes from God), Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Paul Irving Posted August 6, 2018 Report Share Posted August 6, 2018 On 12/16/2016 at 1:29 PM, Pastor Ralph said: Q2. What did the term “Messiah” mean to the Jews? How does Daniel’s Son of Man exceed this understanding? Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? The Messiah is the decendant of David who is prophesied to reign over the people of Israel and Judah. Daniel’s Son of man reigns over the entire world. He didn’t want to upset the Jews, because they would have thought He was blaspheming. So Jesus Christ used Son of man instead of the Son of God. He only used Son of God on very rare occasions like before He was crucified they asked are you the Son of the blessed and He says I am. Also Jesus Christ wanted to prove himself to the people by His mighty works and His divine wisdom. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
newwine50 Posted April 1, 2019 Report Share Posted April 1, 2019 Q2. What did the term "Messiah" mean to the Jews? They saw the Messiah as being the one who would restore David's Kingdom, an earthly kingdom. How does Daniel's Son of Man exceed this understanding?This is not an earthly kingdom but the Son of Man's Glorious Kingdom that will last forever and crush all other kingdoms. Why does Jesus primarily use the title Son of Man rather than Messiah or Son of God? It avoided religious and political problems of the leaders accusing Him of blasphemy. It also shows that it was the 'Son of Man' (humanity) who was given this eternal kingdom. Jesus didn't have to become a man to inherit all of this for Himself. He had to become man for us to be restored to the place God intended for us to be. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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