Pastor Ralph Posted December 17, 2004 Report Share Posted December 17, 2004 Q11. (James 2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the “Royal Law”? How is it more “royal” than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the “Royal Law” towards that rich person? How does it break the “Royal Law” in regard to a poor person? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kas Posted January 30, 2005 Report Share Posted January 30, 2005 It's royal because all the laws and prophets hinge on it. It is the supreme law. If we obey it, we're obeying every aspect of all the other laws. If we do love our neighbor, we won't steal, lie, covet or murder him or his family. Showing favoritism isn't love at all but rather selfish motives. True love is irrespective of position and appearance. We must look at them in a spiritual light to overcome the physical aspects. To love some over all makes us guilty because we're to love all. God made us all. We are all special to Him. If we love Him, we will love all that He created. Jesus didn't say" Love some of your neighbors as yourself ". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Peggie Posted January 31, 2005 Report Share Posted January 31, 2005 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? Because it is the highest law that there is. Paul tells us that if we don't have love, we have nothing. How is it more "royal" than the Mosaic Law? Because the Mosaid Law stems off of it. If we go around stealing, murdering, etc. it shows we have no love. How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? Because if we show favoritism toward a rich person just because they are rich, we are not loving them at all. How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? Because it's not loving the poor person. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Helen Spaulding Posted February 1, 2005 Report Share Posted February 1, 2005 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Barnabas Posted February 1, 2005 Report Share Posted February 1, 2005 God, No Respecter of Person James 2:1---My brethren, have not the faith---Jesus was no respecter of persons and He ministered to the needs of all who sought Him. Just as readily and willingly did He restore sight to the blind beggar., Bartimaeus, as He did turn water into wine for the ruler of the feast at the marriage in Cana of Galilee. Verse 2---A man with a gold ring--- The gold ring and goodly apparel is an indication of material prosperity but has no indication of the prosperity of the man on the inside, or the soul, which is the all important things in the sight of God. The man in the vile raiment might have had a soul that was fat and flourishing, having been fed bountifully at the Master's table. Verse 3---And ye have respect to him---To give the prosperous looking fellow a desirable seat and tell the other one to stand in an undesirable place is indeed a very good way to show partiality and so offend God. If the poor man were a Christian, he would accept the undesirable place and give thanks to God being allowed to be accorded standing room. "Great peace have they which love thy law" and nothing shall offend them." Verse 4---Are ye not then partial---It is the way of the world to show favor to the rich and to ignore the poor. The children of God are not of the world to show favor to the rich and to ignore the poor. The children of God are not of the world, and they are not led by its ways; but they are a peculiar people, zealous of good works-works that are pleasing in the sight of God, but not necessarily pleasing in the eyes of the world. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lindaparadise Posted February 1, 2005 Report Share Posted February 1, 2005 the mosiach law was written in a way to suit the writers.example GOD said that when you leave your parents and get married then the 2 of you are now one. and will be together forever. yet in the mosiach laws the people haunted moses long enough until he wrote that you can get a divorce if your spouse is commiting adultry. made to order. "The Royal Law" are the 10 commandments peroid. no if ands and buts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
retired Posted February 1, 2005 Report Share Posted February 1, 2005 Q3. James 2:9-11 Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law?" Why is it more "Royal" than the mosaic law? How does showing favoritism towards a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? James 2:9-11 (9) But if you show favoritism, you sin and are convicted by the law as lawbreakers. (10) For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles at just one point is guilty of breaking all of it. (11) For he who said, "Do not commit adultry," also said "Do not murder." If you do not commit adultry but do commit murder you, you have become a lawbreaker. The Great Commandment is the "Royal Law because Jesus is the one who gave it to us. Moses gave us the mosaic law. While both came from God, Jesus was in fact God in person. This was the word of law out of the very mouth of God. When you show favoritism towards a rich person you are breaking the "Royal Law" because you are not treating everyone the same. You are not loving everyone as yourself. You are leaving out the poor person. The poor are to be treated just the same as the rich. Jesus said that even as we do to the least of these we are doing to him. So if we want to be good to Jesus we had better be good to the poor and downcast. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sgt_Z_Squad Posted February 1, 2005 Report Share Posted February 1, 2005 3a.) (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
June Posted February 2, 2005 Report Share Posted February 2, 2005 Because Christ is self giving and cares about the needs of others. Loving others more than ourselves should be the center of our ministry. Same law must apply to alien born and native born alike. No partiality shown, no injustice or judgement to the poor of the land. By breaking one law, it is like breaking them all. Favoritism is sin, as is partiality and prejudice. We can not make excuses and expect to be blessed. God views all as evil practices and wants us to repent from them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DebChats Posted February 2, 2005 Report Share Posted February 2, 2005 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
preacherping Posted February 2, 2005 Report Share Posted February 2, 2005 We do not treat anyone in a way that we would not want to be treated. Jesus said love your neighbor as your self. John tells us that others will know that you are my disciples in that you have love one for another. Love is the true measuring stick of your "religion." That makes this the golden or royal law. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Julie Posted February 2, 2005 Report Share Posted February 2, 2005 For it is the law of love, it is the highest commandment with the exception of loving God which is the first commmmandment, it fulfills the law, for if you do not love, you cannot fulfil the other commandments. All the laws hang on this commandment. If we show favoritism toward anyone we break the Royal law for we are not showing love, for this is not they way we would want to be treated so we are not loving others as ourselves. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sunilbernard Posted February 2, 2005 Report Share Posted February 2, 2005 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Renee Posted February 2, 2005 Report Share Posted February 2, 2005 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jen Posted February 2, 2005 Report Share Posted February 2, 2005 Why does James refer to the Great commandment as the Royal Law? How is it more royal than the Mosaic Law. How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the royal law toward that rich person? How does it break the Royal Law in regard to a poor person?To me the great commandment is the culmination of all the commandments. It is the Royal Law. God is love and He showed us His love by dying for us while we were yet sinners."Amazing love how can it be that thou my God shouldst die for me". The Bible says Let all that you do be done in love. 1 Cor. 16:14. This is one verse that I like to use with some non believers because it is nonthreatening because we all like to be treated with love.If we were to give undue favoritism to the rich and not to the poor we would be discrimminating against our Lord "for though He was rich yet He became poor".We are to be honest with all and love all regardless of their status in life. This is a comfort to the rich and poor because the poor are held in the same regard as the rich in God's eyes and if the rich enters misfortune He is stilll held in the same regard in God's eyes. It is the worth of the eternal soul that God values not a persons money and all we own really belongs to Him anyway. So to show favoritism towards a rich person is not to be honest with him about the true nature of God's love for him. Ditto for the poor person.God BlessJenNumbers 6:24-26 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Magnus Posted February 3, 2005 Report Share Posted February 3, 2005 The Great Commandment Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bob Reeves Posted February 3, 2005 Report Share Posted February 3, 2005 1. If I may take from the lesson out line, "The Royal Law of love capsulizes and condenses the spirit of the Mosaic Law. 2. The Mosaic Law brings with it "punishment." The Roysl Law brings "life and mercy." 3. Showing favoritism toward a rich person is a sin. Just as being prejudice to a poor person is sin. I have learned this favoritism and prejudice is a sin. It doesn't make any difference which way it goes. Therefore, since showing favoritism and being prejudice is a sin we need to repent of them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MannyVelarde Posted February 3, 2005 Report Share Posted February 3, 2005 The royal law is from the King of Kings. It encompases the whole law to love the Lord your God with all your heart, soul and strength and to love your neighbor as yourself. The basis must be love - - it has always been steeped in love. We must love our neighbors, not by our strength but by the power of God. Our goal should be to love - not because we get something in return - but because we want to honor God because we love Him. We should love all people the same. If we love only the rich, we are probably doing so because we thing our reward will be greater. Jesus never sees a difference between people - all created equally - loved by God equally - - our job is to mirror Jesus. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sherrylynn Posted February 3, 2005 Report Share Posted February 3, 2005 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
brian Posted February 4, 2005 Report Share Posted February 4, 2005 I thinkit is royal because it is more effective in making our lives pleasing to God.It does not rely on human effort. Favouritism to the rich breaks the royal law in that it makes our wealth the basis of our salvation and it willmake the poor feel left out. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
grace Posted February 4, 2005 Report Share Posted February 4, 2005 1,The great commandment is the Royal Law because it was given by Jesus, our royal priest, who totally fullfilled the Royal Law by His sacrifice for all mankind upon Calvary's cross. 2. It is more royal than the Mosaic law because unlike man who could not keep the Mosaic Law, the God-man demonstrated the royal law in showing His perfect love for us, and for us to follow His example. 3. Showing favouritism toward a rich man breaks the royal law because it is a sin to be partial . In the royal law , we are to love all men equally. 4. It also breaks the royal law toward the poor person , because it does not place the poor person on the same level of love as the rich man. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JoyceAlaska Posted February 4, 2005 Report Share Posted February 4, 2005 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? How is it more "royal" than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? Some one said it : Like the royal highway, it is straight forward--no twists or turns! The Royal Law is contained within the Mosaic law--in fact is a direct quote--however, the Mosaic law was imperfect because its system of blood sacrifices that had to be offered over and over again, was only a shadow of the true sacrifice--the Lamb of God--Jesus Christ. By showing preference toward a rich person, it can infer that their riches can buy them salvation--which is untrue and if they relied upon that would doom them--the gospel is to be preached without regard to person or pedigree. By showing disrespect to the poor person it can infer that they are not worthy of salvation, which, again, is untrue--salvation is free to all! Besides, it was to shepherds that the news of Christ's birth was first given--Jesus preached to all who would listen and that was mainly the poor, the disowned, the disreputable-- ** See Romans 15:7 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tom Nabors Posted February 5, 2005 Report Share Posted February 5, 2005 Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dparker777 Posted February 5, 2005 Report Share Posted February 5, 2005 Christ said there are two commandmands above all others "Love God with all you heart. Love you neighbor as you love yourself. If you truly Love God with all your heart as he commanded, your heart will not be cold to others. Christ put it in a more simplistic term or condensed version "Love you neighbor (everyone) as you love yourself, show not favoritism. You are not loving the rich, with a pure heart, under the surface you want this person to like you in case you need something, they may be able to help you, where as the poor may not. Your assuming that the poor have nothing to offer. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AngelOnLine Posted February 5, 2005 Report Share Posted February 5, 2005 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? "Whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles at just one point is guilty of breaking all of it" (2:10). When God said Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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