Craig Posted September 5, 2007 Report Share Posted September 5, 2007 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Busy Lizzie Posted January 13, 2008 Report Share Posted January 13, 2008 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tina Posted January 26, 2008 Report Share Posted January 26, 2008 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
riyamg Posted March 27, 2008 Report Share Posted March 27, 2008 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
glory Posted December 1, 2008 Report Share Posted December 1, 2008 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanks Posted March 10, 2009 Report Share Posted March 10, 2009 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? How is it more "royal" than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favouritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? It is called the royal law because it belongs to the King of kings and because it is the king of all laws. When comparing it to the Law of Moses we note that both required us to love our neighbour, but only the Royal Law gave us the power to do it, and did not condemn us if we failed. It is only under grace, that we are given the power to love our neighbour and are rewarded when we do it. We don't do it in order to be saved but because we are saved. We do it, not through fear of punishment, but through love for our Lord Jesus who died for us and rose again. If we really loved our neighbours as ourselves, we would treat them all the way we would want to be treated. We would not want to be despised simply because we were poor, or to be shown favouritism simply because we were rich. It is because we are self-centred, that we cater to the rich because of the hope of reward, either socially or materially. At the same time we neglect the poor because there is little prospect of their benefiting us in any way. The royal law forbids such selfish exploitation of others, and teaches us to love our neighbour as ourselves. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Peggy Crans Posted May 13, 2009 Report Share Posted May 13, 2009 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
C Riv Posted June 11, 2009 Report Share Posted June 11, 2009 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
smithj7 Posted June 13, 2009 Report Share Posted June 13, 2009 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
royk Posted August 11, 2009 Report Share Posted August 11, 2009 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ashech Posted November 27, 2009 Report Share Posted November 27, 2009 james refered this is the royal commandment because it proceeded from the mouth of the King of kings and Lord of lords. it is more royal law than the mosaic because it instructs love for God and love for our neighbours whereas mosiac law is more generally for detering of sin. favoritism does not perfect our love for our neigbours but inclines towards selfish gain rather than sacrificial which we might give without gaining. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bower Posted January 12, 2010 Report Share Posted January 12, 2010 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bower Posted January 12, 2010 Report Share Posted January 12, 2010 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
parakaleo Posted January 12, 2010 Report Share Posted January 12, 2010 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? How is it more "royal" than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? Its THE commandment of how we should relate to one another, and it was given and modelled to us by our "King" Jesus Christ. All the other laws hang off the Royal Law. If one law is broken then all are... however favoritism is not loving as God intended, it is using our own selfish very flawed bias rather than God's unconditional love. It puts us at the centre and is self serving. Therefore we are not "loving" we are judging. So we are not serving God and we are not loving our neighbor so we are breaking the laws... Jesus modelled the Royal Law in that he was a servant. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
davidjjj Posted January 14, 2010 Report Share Posted January 14, 2010 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? How is it more "royal" than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favouritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? The reference to Royal law makes clear it is the law of our King, Jesus. We know He came not to do away with Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ramon Posted December 21, 2010 Report Share Posted December 21, 2010 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? How is it more "royal" than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? Answer: 1 . Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? LOVE is the center of God Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cindy L W Posted December 28, 2010 Report Share Posted December 28, 2010 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Charles Sanger Posted January 5, 2011 Report Share Posted January 5, 2011 The Great Commandment is the Royal Law, because it summarises all the laws previously provided by God to Israel (in Exodus) in one Commandment. Follow this Great Commandment and you will automatically obey the 10 Commandments. I personally feel that the Great Commandment is more Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ljmnkscart Posted August 17, 2011 Report Share Posted August 17, 2011 James refers the Great Commandment as the royal law for the same reason that it is more royal than the Mosiac Law. It is because it is spiritual, and comes from the heart and takes precedence over the physical law of Moses. Showing favoritism to a rich person breaks the law because when you show favoritism to whomever or whatever you are being selfish, looking out for yourself and that is not what the royal law of love is. The royal law of love is loving your neighbor as yourself and if you are favoring that person for the way he looks or what he has it is simply because you think you can benefit from him in someway, not judging or loving that person for his moral character. You break the law in regard to a poor person in that you think that this person is not worth your consideration because this person doesn' t look a certain way or does not have riches and cannot offer you anything or benefit you in someway. This is definetly not showing love or respect for the individual and judging and loving him for his moral character. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RodR Posted February 6, 2012 Report Share Posted February 6, 2012 James refers to the Great Commandment as the Royal Law because it comes from Christ the King. The Royal Law summarizes the Mosaic Law and the prophets. If you keep the Royal Law, you will not break Mosaic Law. You cannot “love your neighbor as yourself” and show favoritism toward a rich person or a poor person. Loving your neighbor means reaching out to him for the cause of Christ regardless of his status. Favoritism pre-judges and shows hatred not love. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Old Jerry Posted April 18, 2012 Report Share Posted April 18, 2012 I think that James referred to the Great Command as the “Royal Law” is because it is the most important law that there is. If you keep this law you are abiding in all the commandments. The law is more “royal” than the Mosaic Law because if you keep the royal law then you are keeping the Mosaic Law. The way that showing favoritism toward a rich person break the “Royal Law” is that you have pre-judged that person. You are looking down at the poor and not treating them with respect. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ragnew Posted October 29, 2012 Report Share Posted October 29, 2012 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the Royal Law? How is it more royal than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the Royal Law towards that rich person? How does it break the Royal Law in regard to a poor person? I'm not sure why this is called the royal law. It was given in Lev. 18, and reinstated by the Lord Jesus (the King of Kings) so maybe that is why it is the "royal law." The royal law encompasses many of the 10 commandments because it is more general. If we genuinely loved others we wouldn't lie, steal, murder, commit adultery, dishonour parents or covet. By showing disproportionate regard for either rich or poor people we are not showing love. Instead we are either flattering with wrong motives or oppressing, both of which are sin, making us guilty of breaking the whole law. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guitar Jim Posted July 11, 2013 Report Share Posted July 11, 2013 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the “Royal Law”? Because Jesus Himself quoted it as the most important law, and because it covers everything. Doing things and living your life out of a spirit of love will ensure you don't break the law. How is it more “royal” than the Mosaic Law? The Mosaic Law took up many books to cover every contingency. People who lived according to the Law of Moses were legalistic and very often self-righteous if they considered themselves good in their own eyes for doing so. Jesus gave us a new commandment to love one another. That was a radical move during His time on earth when the Pharisees were the keepers and instructors of the way to live righteously. How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the “Royal Law” towards that rich person? By doing that we see the rich person through worldly eyes and not from God's viewpoint. We give them favorable treatment often at the expense of people God values just as highly but who in our world-influenced view don't warrant it. How does it break the “Royal Law” in regard to a poor person? We become guilty of treating as second class someone Jesus died for. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Akkjl Posted July 17, 2013 Report Share Posted July 17, 2013 Jesus is the King. He said this was the most important thing, and covered everything we need to know. Love honors, does not steal, does not murder, does not break commitments, cannot wish for harm to befall anyone. God is Love and as his children we are to show extravagant love to others and is a byproduct of knowing we are so loved. For James to call this the Royal Law helps make this see the urgency and value of it understanding and let God's grace more through me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Craig Posted August 14, 2013 Report Share Posted August 14, 2013 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the �Royal Law�? How is it more �royal� than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the �Royal Law� towards that rich person? How does it break the �Royal Law� in regard to a poor person? God is love. Love places the needs of others before my own. Genuine love connects me with God and those around me. Jesus said: "For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son that whoever believes in him should not perish but everlasting life." John 3:16. So, if God so love the world how can I as a follower of Christ not love others. When you love God and others you don't sin against them. You truly do unto others so you would want them to do unto you. You truly care. Love is not real if it is selectively given. Royal law is the King's law. That King is God and he is love. If we are to be his people we need to love. See I Cor. 13 for a definition of applied love. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.