Ken Russell Posted October 27, 2007 Report Share Posted October 27, 2007 Q1. How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice? (John 1:29). How was the comprehensiveness of "sins of the world" so radical a concept? A lamb was the common sacrifice in the Jewish religion. The passover lamb was a yearly sacrifice for sin and the Jewish hearers of John's proclamation would have had no doubt as to its meaning. The Jewish religion was very exclusive, so the concept of a lamb being sacrificed for the world - not just for Jews - would have been radical indeed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
delmix61 Posted December 10, 2007 Report Share Posted December 10, 2007 It's interesting that this is the first question of this lesson. A few years ago the cover of TIME magazine caught my eye. It was shortly after Mel Gibson's movie, "The Passion Of The Christ" came out. The Cover Story was intitled "Why Did Jesus Have To Die?" The story was about an interdenominational mens bible study group who were sitting around discussing this fore-mentioned question. Finishing the article it saddened me that in the three pages the article took up that the question was not answered. The answer to that question and the question "How do we know John was refering to the Lamb Of God as a sacrifice is the same. God has always required a BLOOD sacrifice for the attonment of sin. As for the second part of the question, The only ones that were able to receive attonment were the Hebrew people. As it was to the Hebrews that the Laws were given and everyone else were gentiles, therefore, only the children of Abraham were considered worthy of forgiveness of their sins. So the thought of Jesus, The Lamb Of God, coming to take the sins of the WORLD would have been incomprehensible to a Jew. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sjb Posted December 30, 2007 Report Share Posted December 30, 2007 How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice? Well, I always learn something new when I take one of this studies--even though I tell myself I "know" the Bible fairly well, I think that I read too fast or not carefully enough just going it on my own. I had studied the Hebrew law dealing with atonement and had studied the Leviticus verses dealing with the sacrificial lamb, perfect and without blemish, that is a part of a sin sacrifice. I just never had noticed that the person who did the sinning had to do the killing--that chore wasn't done by a priest. Now here I am crying my eyes out because I know that I am responsible for the ultimate sin offering that is the perfect lamb, Jesus Himself. How does that make me feel? So terribly unworthy. How was the comprehensiveness of "sins of the world" so radical a concept? The Jews of the day thought they had their sins covered: Go before the priests in the temple on the Day of Atonement, bring a sacrificial lamb, cut it's throat and ta-da! The priests took care of the rest of the ritual. They did not think in terms of this ceremony covering a gentile...it was strictly a ritual for God's chosen people. John the Baptist's statement was one of the first revelations that Jesus came to us all, Jews and gentiles alike, and was there to atone for the sins of all the peoples of the world. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jewell Posted January 17, 2008 Report Share Posted January 17, 2008 Because lambs were sacrificed to atone for sin. "Sin of the world" is a radical concept because it is encompassing - it includes everyone. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BillR at Holy Apostles Posted February 3, 2008 Report Share Posted February 3, 2008 How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice? John refers to Jesus as the "lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world". The Jews used sheep and goats in animal sacrifices. And, goats in particular were cast out of the camps as "scapegoats" after a priest placed all the sins of the camp on the goat. The goat in effect took the sins of the camp away. John knew this, and saw Jesus as what he was--the one who could take away not just the sins of the Jews, but those of the whole world. How was the comprehensiveness of the "sin of the world" so radical a concept? The Jews were an exclusive people for the most part. Forgiveness of sins through sin offerings was restricted to those who sacrificed, namely the Jews. A sacrifice that took away the whole sins of the world had to be revolutionary to them, though I didn't see that until just now. One of the other posters mentioned this was the first sign that Jesus came to save all, not just the Jews. That's a very good point. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Elie Posted February 11, 2008 Report Share Posted February 11, 2008 How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice? John the baptist was Jew, Jews used to offer animal for the atonement of their sin, and this animal shall be slaughtered before the Lord. The animal God used to save the Israelites in the night of the first passover was the lamb(Exodus 20.1-20). The whole assembly of Israel shall slaughter it at twilight. The blood of the lamb must be shed, so it is a sacrifice as it was in ancient time. How was the comprehensiveness of the "sin of the world" so radical a concept? It is radical, because the offering of sacrifice was usually for one person, one family or at most for the people of Israel. By saying " the lamb who takes away the sin of the world ", the word "world" includes all kind of human been, even the Israelites' oppressors. How can God send a lamb to take away the sin of even the oppressors of His people: Israel? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mbug Posted February 16, 2008 Report Share Posted February 16, 2008 John the Baptist knew that the words spoken down through history was to be true. John being a man of Christ, knew that Jesus was being sent from God to wash away our sins and not just to cover them up like in Abraham's day. I don't think it is so radical, as much as people just don't "believe in" sins. People are taught by their elders (preachers, teachers, deacons) that God sent his only begotten son to die on the cross for our sins. Through His death and His Grace that we are no longer liable for our sins. As long as we claim that we are saved, then we have a ticket to do as we wish and want, with out any consequences. The elders seem to forget that the 10 commandments were written in "stone" not to be broken, not to be dismissed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Marleen Posted February 16, 2008 Report Share Posted February 16, 2008 For the Hebrew people of John's time, a 'lamb' and sacrifice would almost have been one and the same. John preached repentance of sins. The listeners would have thought of: - The lamb that God provided for Abraham - The blood of the Lamb that was on the doorpost of the homes of their forefathers (Exodus) so the angel of the Lord did not slay their first born. 'Sin of the world' was radical because the Israelites were the chosen people. They stood out from the rest as it were. And now John comes with this saying... reconciliation was offered to everyone! Not just the Israelites. This must have been quite a chock to the hearers in John's day. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Brendamay Posted February 20, 2008 Report Share Posted February 20, 2008 When John saw Jesus, he knew instantly, that Jesus was the Son of God. He also knew that the son of man would be slaughtered. That Jesus would be killed to save the world.and to die for the sins of the world. That is why he called him the lamb of God, Lambs were killed for sacrifice, through the ages. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WFC Posted June 21, 2008 Report Share Posted June 21, 2008 Well after reading Leviticus, we learn that the blood of a lamb was used to as an offering or sacrifice to God for sins. So when John states that Jesus is the Lamb, he is basically saying that Jesus will be the offering or the sacrifice for the sins of the world. I believe that the comprehensiveness of the Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
saricha1130 Posted July 13, 2008 Report Share Posted July 13, 2008 Anytime the Bible refers to Jesus and the Lam of God who takes away the sins of the World, it would infer that Jesus is about to do something in exchange for our sins. This usually requires a form of trade. As He was born a carpenter and had little to offer materialistically, the statement infers there is something of great value he is about to trade. A life, even of a lamb who feeds a family, is valuable... if only to that family. But it has accomplished a great task by the taking of its life. It has given life to others who would not have had it otherwise. This is an ultimate sacrifice. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Intercessor Posted September 17, 2008 Report Share Posted September 17, 2008 We know the statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice because the Jewish faith had a common practice of sacrificing lambs. Normally the sacrifice was to blot out the sins of just the Jewish people. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulcrf Posted November 24, 2008 Report Share Posted November 24, 2008 Q1. How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice? (John 1:29). How was the comprehensiveness of "sins of the world" so radical a concept? Lambs were commonly used by the Jews for sacrifices to obtain forgiveness. In this statement of John, the "lamb of God" was immediately followed by "who takes away the sins of the world. It made the purpose clear that the lamb was intended for sacrificial offering to wash away sins. Animal offering was done annually by the Jews to wash away sins of a single person. This lamb was to be an offering to to wash away the "sins of the people of the world" not just a person. Therefore the sacrifice was to be done once for all sinners of the world. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dawnp63 Posted February 28, 2009 Report Share Posted February 28, 2009 1.The Jewish people were very familiar with the lamb as a symbol of sacrifice for sin and atonement. This had been established by God before the time of Abraham's intended sacrifice of Isaac, his beloved son (Genesis 22:7 is the first reference to "lamb" found in my small concordance - but after that there are many!!!). The blood of a lamb was used to place on the doorposts of the Israelites in Egypt to signify to the Angel of Death to "passover"... 2. Sacrifices had been made for personal sin, and corporate sin for the Israelites since early times also. There were sacrifices that were made for the whole nation of Israel at designated times, but individual sacrifice is also shown in the Bible (ie: Abraham and Isaac). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sanditui Posted March 2, 2009 Report Share Posted March 2, 2009 Q1. How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice? (John 1:29). How was the comprehensiveness of "sins of the world" so radical a concept? It was customary in John's time to use an unblemished lamb as a sacrifice for sins committed, so for John to refer to Jesus as the Lamb of God, it somehow foreshadows that Jesus was to become the sacrificial lamb sent by God to atone for human sins. The shedding of a lamb's blood and the sprinkling of that blood on the sinner was a way to make amends for wrong doings. Jesus becoming the lamb who takes away our sins, now redeems humanity and ensures salvation for all who would believe in Him. 'Sins of the world' was a radical concept at the time because all along God had told the Israelites that He was forming a chosen race and that they were the chosen people. If anyone sinned they had to come forward with their family and offer an unblemished lamb as a sacrifice in atonement for that sin. To now suggest that Jesus was the one to take away the sins of the world, was difficult to comprehend as that would mean circumcised as well as uncircumcised people were to be included in this cleansing and forgiveness . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Delivered Posted April 13, 2009 Report Share Posted April 13, 2009 Q1. (John 1:29) How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice?. God instructed His covenant people (Ex 29:38-39) to offer upon the altar: two lambs a year old, one in the morning and one in the evening. This acknowledge that they are a people of Yahweh, God Almighty (Ex 29:45-46) God will dwell among the children of Israel, and will be their God. And they shall know that I am Jehovah their God, that brought them forth out of the land of Egypt, that I might dwell among them: I am Jehovah their God. How was the comprehensiveness of "sin of the world" so radical a concept? It is a wonderful mystery of God, that all of mankind may be reconciled to God Almighty, Yahweh, the God of Israel. The Lamb of God would be the sacrifice for the sins of the world, the Jew and the Gentile, acknowledging that those who believe in the Lamb would belong to, be reconciled to Yahweh, God Almighty, the God of Israel. The Gentile people were a people of no hope, lost; they did not believe in the one true God, the God of Israel. They had no covenant with God; the radical concept is, yes, salvation is for the Gentile too. I thank you God for remembering me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
chris loh Posted June 8, 2009 Report Share Posted June 8, 2009 It is the Jewish tradition to use lamb as animal sacrifice under Mosses's Law to atone sins. Jesus, the Christ, is the Son of God who was sent by the Father, as a lamb to atone sins for all mankind. He, the son, who has no sin but become sin for all of us. This is God's salvation plan for all mankind. John, the baptist, is the witness sent by God to testify that Christ is the Son of God, and he revealed the purpose of Christ's purpose of becoming flesh to dwell among us. The fall of mankind brought forth sins, fall short the glory of God. The law and animal sacrifice have become a ritual among the people whose heart have hardened. Sin of the world was a radicle concept because at that time people believed that their sins can be atoned by animal sacrifices. They too believed that sins can be avoided by not breaking the laws. They least expect that Christ has entered the world to offer them the truth. The atonement of sins was carried out by the high priest, who represent the sinners in front of God. The gift of the holy spirit offered by Christ was a radical concept that was never heard of at that time. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tjackson Posted July 10, 2009 Report Share Posted July 10, 2009 Q1. How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice? (John 1:29). How was the comprehensiveness of "sins of the world" so radical a concept? Lambs were used by the Jews as a sacrifice for forgiveness of sin. The Jews concept was only their sins were forgiven. Whereas Jesus doesn't forgive just one single person or a sect, he forgives sins for everyone, the entire world for that matter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sturdy to be approved Posted August 13, 2009 Report Share Posted August 13, 2009 Q1. How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice? (John 1:29). How was the comprehensiveness of "sins of the world" so radical a concept? Looking at the statement and question, The lamb is a sacrificial animal wich makes atonement, so having presented jesus as the lamb wich takes away the sin of the world means that he is refering to sacrifice. It is a radical concept becouse people could not coprehend the concept that God being the forgiver of sin would now have to sacrifice, but to whom would he sacrifice to. Inveriably Jhon the baptist presented Jesus as God Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
diana47 Posted October 25, 2009 Report Share Posted October 25, 2009 behold the lamb of god who bears the sin of the world?the lamb was a sacrifice animal among the jews.god taught his chosen people to slay a lamb and to sprinkle its blood as a sacrifice.the lamb was killed as a substitute and its blood shed so that sin might be forgiven.god would one day provide a lamb who would actually take away the sin.all own through the years godly jews had waited for the coming of this lamb.now at last the time has come, and john the baptist triumphanytly announced the arrival of the true lamb of god.when he said that jesus bears the sin of the world,he did not mean that everyones sins are forgiven.the death of christ was great enough in value to pay for the sins of the whole world,but only those sinners who recieve the lord jesus as savior are forgiven. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Marloes Posted November 23, 2009 Report Share Posted November 23, 2009 Q1. How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice? (John 1:29). How was the comprehensiveness of "sins of the world" so radical a concept? If the jews sinned, they offered a lamb and the sin was forgiven. Jesus now is called a lamb who takes the sins away. Only He is a special sacrifice for He died for all sins at once. Ordinary lambs are for a particular sin - the special lamb for all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Meggo Posted January 31, 2010 Report Share Posted January 31, 2010 I've never really thought about how radical it was (and is!) for John the Baptist to talk about Jesus taking away "the sin of the world". The average 1st century Jew probably wasn't thinking about forgiveness being available to the whole world. The concept probably challenges a lot of us who live in the 21st century, as well. It's absolutely astounding! God himself has made forgiveness of sin available to every single human being through the death of Jesus Christ on the cross. That is astounding and marvelous! May the ends of the earth come to know the Lamb of God who can take away their sin! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeidiW Posted February 13, 2010 Report Share Posted February 13, 2010 Q1. How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice? (John 1:29). How was the comprehensiveness of "sins of the world" so radical a concept? The second question resonates with me, about the comprehensiveness of "sins of the world". This is a foreshadowing of the great mystery that Paul talks about in Ephesian which is that the Gentiles are fellow heirs part of God's people. Up to this time, the Jews have a unique place in the world religions, because they are monotheistic, because they worship the CREATOR! THE God. And anyone who wanted to worship God with them, must covenant with them and follow their law. they were forbidden to fraternize with the peoples surrounding them, and the gentiles were not allowed in to see any part of the temple rites. They are told not even to take on the habits of the surrounding nations (such as tattooing or cutting themselves). Now, John the Baptist is telling them that there is a Jewish Man...the Messiah whom they have been wanting and expecting...who will bring the whole world into His redemption. Yeah, this was pretty amazing stuff. IS pretty amazing stuff! The lamb being a sacrifice. Surely the Jewish people hearing J the B knew what "lamb" meant and "take away" and "sin" ...but here before them is a MAN! And John is calling Him a Lamb from God. A Man who is a Lamb? this must have been pretty difficult to wrap their brains around. Hm. food for thought, to be sure! Amen! Thank You Jesus, Lamb of God! The Lamb who was slain and now lives! Amen! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rex Schultz Posted February 13, 2010 Report Share Posted February 13, 2010 Q1. How do you know that John the Baptist's statement about the Lamb of God refers to sacrifice? (John 1:29). How was the comprehensiveness of "sins of the world" so radical a concept? I wonder what else he could be referring to? The people were knowledgeable about sacrificial practices and lambs were the animal of choice in the accustomed process. The "sins of the world" was a radical concept because they would have known that only the sins of the one who put their hands on the lamb would have the relief from sin committed. So how could the world lay their hands on this one lamb? I also wonder about the symbolic nature of John's reference vs. the physical nature of what the people were accustomed to doing. Salvation is not just a mental assent to faith in Christ, is it? Does He not require some physical manifestation of our choice to put our faith in Him? I believe He does. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeidiW Posted February 13, 2010 Report Share Posted February 13, 2010 Rex, you said "Salvation is not just a mental assent to faith in Christ, is it? Does He not require some physical manifestation of our choice to put our faith in Him? I believe He does." Is this baptism, then? Receiving pardon from is more than mental assent, to be sure. It requires a life given to Him "living sacrifice" as Romans 12 puts it. I think maybe baptism is the required action He wants of us. It says "Repent and believe, and be baptized" in Acts... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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