Pastor Ralph Posted August 18, 2007 Report Share Posted August 18, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tabatha Posted November 8, 2007 Report Share Posted November 8, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? The real character of sin is rebellion against God. This constitutes its essence, its magnitude, its malignity. Doudtless fellow-men may be most grievously injured and outraged and afflicted. Many may be wounded; many tears may have been drawn forth, but the main evil assails God. The blow is aimed at God's supremacy. Hence God's truth and justice are exalted to their highest pinnacles. In every threat, in every denunciation, in every execution of vengeance, homage is rendered to these essential attributes. When sin is punished, holiness is vindicated. Sin is here traced to nature's original corruption. The tree is radically corrupt. No good fruit can hang from its branches. The spring is poisoned, the waters which flow from it are polluted. When Adam yielded to the tempter's wiles, the whole line of his descendants perished in him. Sad, indeed, is our case, except redeemimg grace transplant us from the ruined stock, and grafts us into the heavenly vine. When sin is deeply felt and openly confessed, conscience feels that God requires true sincerity throughout the heart. The folly of mocking God with unmeaning tears or unreal prayers is felt; and there is most earnest supplication to God to implant wisdom in the heart and soul, to guide in the way everlasting. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Commissioned Posted November 9, 2007 Report Share Posted November 9, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? David is not minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah. He is however, admiting that all sin is against God. David mentions that he was sinful from before his birth, in this he is not excusing himself or blaming Original Sin, he is however afirming the fact he, as a man is sinful. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Elwood C O'Dell Posted November 10, 2007 Report Share Posted November 10, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? No. David is recognizing that even though he sinned against Bathsheba and Uriah, his greatest sin was against the Lord for David had rebelled against God. When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? No. He is acknowledging the awfulness of his sin and confirming that he is sinful through and through. He is acknowledging that sin is a part of his inner nature before he is transformed by the grace of God.] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
charisbarak Posted November 10, 2007 Report Share Posted November 10, 2007 David is not minimizing the sin against Uriah & Bathsheba, he is looking higher--the big picture--at his rebellious acts against a holy God. His sinfulness before birth simply says, sure there was the original sin, but that he, too, is affected by it. He was admitting he was sinful through & through--that he committed many sins by the one act. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stan Posted November 12, 2007 Report Share Posted November 12, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? No,he is admitting that the greater sin is against the Lord, his Saviour and God. He know that the Lord is His one true Judge and that it is from Him that he must seek the upmost forgiveness. I think that he is admitting that as humans we are born into a sinful world and often led to do things not of God due to our weakness for things of this world. We are often tempted by **** to seek out things that we do not need and do not seek the Lord's favor in providing for our needs. We leave God out of our life by going after things instead of being contrite and waiting on the Lord. 5Surely I was sinful ( Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JustJeff Posted November 12, 2007 Report Share Posted November 12, 2007 Personally, in the strictest sense, I don't believe that we sin against other people. I believe we violate, hurt, trespass, deceive and commit other great pains to our fellows but it is against God that we sin and that is what David meant.It is God who has established what He considers to be unholy and it is He only who is wholey holy. We are born into sin. David confession is that he has a natural inclination to sin, as do we all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Patricia A Posted November 13, 2007 Report Share Posted November 13, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? Does this mean that David's sins against Bathsheba and her husband Uriah were meaningless, inconsequential? No, not at all. But David recognizes that the greatest sin of all is against the Lord that he purports to love. When he sins, he is flaunting his rebellion in God's face. Though David killed Uriah, it was God Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ella Posted November 13, 2007 Report Share Posted November 13, 2007 I don't think david is minimizing his sin against bathsheba or uriah. I think that is is looking at the whole picture and that he sinned against a holy God. I also don't think that he is making excuses. Because we are human, we are all prone to sin. we are born with original sin. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
davidjjj Posted November 13, 2007 Report Share Posted November 13, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? David had broken specific covenant commands (see Ex 20) and was acknowledging that he was ultimately accountable to God. I don Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Helen Williams Posted November 14, 2007 Report Share Posted November 14, 2007 I don't think David was making light of his sin against Bathsheba/ Uriah. He realized that none of the indictments were as serious as his offense against God. If David could come to this conclusion then he know how serious the offense was with Bathsheba/Uriah. This shows a person that truly wants God's forgiveness. It also shows that David had a repentant heart about what he had done. It is just good to admit the truth. David is not excusing himself or blaming original sin. I feel David is taking responsibility for his action. This is hard for some of us because we want to put the blame else where. David meant that from birth he was inclined to sin. We all was born with a sinful nature, but only God searches the heart and the mind. Davis repeatly call for his cleansing. He expresses his profound sense of guilt. We can speak of David, his sin, and his action but what about us when we sin against God. Are we repeatly calling for God to cleanse us? REMEMBER, DAVID WAS A MAN AFTER GOD'S OWN HEART! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nerradb Posted November 14, 2007 Report Share Posted November 14, 2007 Sin is sin and when we sin we end up hurting someone, somewhere, sometime. God is love and sin (hurting people), is against Gods ways and we will be accountable to Him. We are sinful from the fall of man, but we need to be aware of this and hand it over to God for His help and His salvation bringing victory over sin. David knows God is merciful and coming to God with a truely repentive heart he will be forgiven, before reaching heaven and being to late. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
csreeves Posted November 14, 2007 Report Share Posted November 14, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? No he is recognizing that all sin are actually only between that person & God and we must go to God to repent. we are sinful from birth for we are born out of sin so David is recognizing his true need of repentance for our human-ness which we all should do. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
KelvinJC Posted November 16, 2007 Report Share Posted November 16, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? 1) No, not at all, it is not minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah. 2) But David recognizes that the greatest sin of all is against the Lord that he purports to love. When he sins, he is flaunting his rebellion in God's face. Yes, we can sin against people and need to make these sins right. But our sin is even more against our heavenly Father. It is that breach that must be healed at all costs. 3) David is not excusing himself or blaming the sin. 4) He is just taking the responsibility for his action. David was a man after God's own heart. He is acknowledging that we are born with a sinful nature and only God can cleanse our heart. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ms CJ Posted November 17, 2007 Report Share Posted November 17, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? * No! He understands that only God can hold him accountable for the sin he has committed. * That God will judge him When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? * His blaming Original Sin and he is affirming that he is sinful through and through. What does he mean by this? * He is acknowledging the awfulness of his sin in the clearest possible way by using these various synonyms of sin that describe its convolutions of rebellion, twistedness, missing the way, and wickedness. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
emmaus Posted November 17, 2007 Report Share Posted November 17, 2007 No, David realizes he has sinned against Bathsheba and Uriah and that was wrong, but he has sinned against God who he claims to love and that is what is most important to make right. His sinfulness from before birth is admitting that there is sin in him and it's wrong, wicked. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
linda bass Posted November 24, 2007 Report Share Posted November 24, 2007 When David says "Against you only have I sinned", he wasn't trying to minimize his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah. David was recognizing the fact that the greatest sin of all is against the Lord. When David mentions his sinfulness from before birth, he is affirming the fact he is sinful through and through. He is admitting the awfulness of his sin in the clearest way possible by using various synonyms for sin. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Don W Posted November 25, 2007 Report Share Posted November 25, 2007 No, David is not minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah but is stating that his sinning against his Lord God is much more drastic and He needs to confess and repent from his sinning against God before he does so with his sin against Bathsheba. He needs to clear this up first and foremost before God so he can have fellowship with God once more trusting in God to cleanse him from his sin and restore him to have a sweet and peaceful fellowship with God once again. David, upon his mention of his sinfulness before even his birth, was not excusing himself with or blaming original sin for his sin, but was acknowledging that in him before his Lord and Master, he was totally depraved in sin through and through himself and only his Lord God could remove all of his sinfulness and turn him into the man whom God loved by removing all of his sins from him as he turned to his Lord as his Savior. God will do the same thing for us as we acknowledge our sinfulness before Him and then turn around (repent) from this sin, and turn to the Lord Jesus for His total forgiveness for our sin and His restoration of fellowship with Him as we do so as Christians. Praise the Lord for such a Triune Godhead that we have that will do all of this for us very sinful and formerly wicked creatures as we are!!!!! Amen! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
masika Posted November 26, 2007 Report Share Posted November 26, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? David was feeling sorry to God because of his sin. He knew that even if he could ask forgiveness from Bathsheba and Uriah without forgiveness from God, it was useless. So true repentance is being sorry not just toward one Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rev. Moultrie Posted November 27, 2007 Report Share Posted November 27, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? No, he is not minimizing his sin. He is actually speaking/praying to God about the terrible sin that he has committed. When David mentions his sinfulness from before birth, I believe he is NOT excusing himself, but he is referring to the fact that we are all born under the shadow of Original Sin. David understands the seriousness of the sin that he has committed & he also understands that he has to repent before God in order to be forgiven. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rev. Moultrie Posted November 27, 2007 Report Share Posted November 27, 2007 Personally, in the strictest sense, I don't believe that we sin against other people. I believe we violate, hurt, trespass, deceive and commit other great pains to our fellows but it is against God that we sin and that is what David meant.It is God who has established what He considers to be unholy and it is He only who is wholey holy. We are born into sin. David confession is that he has a natural inclination to sin, as do we all. I am "a little" behind on my studies of this series, but upon reading your response, I must say that I believe you really have a point when you say that we do not sin against people. As you pointed out, it is God that we sin against; and this brings to my mind another issue that should be pointed out along those same lines of thinking. We would all do good to remember as we fight against sin that we "wrestle not against flesh & blood". We're not fighting a particular person or people, but the spirit of evil "principalities, spiritual wickedness in high places" etc. (From Ephesians 6:12). God bless you for reminding me of this point! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Patsy Laycoax Posted November 28, 2007 Report Share Posted November 28, 2007 No,David is not minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah but it is not them he sinned against although he did do them wrong,he sinned against God because God is perfect and the one who saves us from our sin. It was in God's presence that he flaunted his sin. So in his confession he admitted his sin was against god and God only. When David mentions his sinfulness from before his birth,he is not excusing his sin but demonstrating how deep his sin goes and just how awful it really is and how much of a sinner he is as we all are and how much he needs God's forgiveness and cleansing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mags Posted December 5, 2007 Report Share Posted December 5, 2007 David is not minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah. He recognises that he has sinned against them and that by this sin against them he has sinned even more against God. When he sins he is rubbing his rebellion in God's face as if to say he doesn't care! David recognises that by sinning against man he ultimately sins against God. David affirms that he is sinful through and through and has been since birth. He isn't excusing himself, just acknowledging his sinfulness. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jewell Posted December 7, 2007 Report Share Posted December 7, 2007 David is recognizing that the greatest sin is against the Lord. He affirms that he is sinful and acknowledges the awfulness of it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Craig Posted December 7, 2007 Report Share Posted December 7, 2007 Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? In sinning against Bathsheba and Uriah, David ultimately sins against God in breaking His commandants and dishonoring Him. Bathsheba and Uriah are both a victim of David's **** and selfish-ness. He doesn't minimize anything. When David mentions original sin, he identifing his nature and blaming only himself for his sin. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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