Q2. Psalm 51

[slicwidow]

When we sin, we ultimatly sin unto God. He is not minimizing his sin, he is merely humbling himself before God. David is referring to the original sin. No matter who we are, we are born in sin. We need Christ's strength to overcome any sin.

[Shaz6]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

No he is not he is just stating that he has also sinned against the Lord and it is that, that needs to be healed.

No he is just saying that he is very sinful.

[plethra]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

No he is not minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah, but is acknowledging that the sin is first and formost against God.

No he is not excusing himself but again is acknowledging the complete sinfulness and sin nature that he has. He is saying I acknowledge that I am a sinner and need YOUR help. I am nothing without YOU Lord.

[AngelOnLine]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah?

No, but he recognizes that any sin is against God and is considered rebellion in God

[allyann]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this?

No, God's commandment to us is not to commit adultry or to covet. David's committed both sins. His sin againt God was greater than his sin againt Bathsheba and Uriah, because ultimately we all have to answer for our sins at the throne of divine grace. David knew that God was present when he committed, the sin " And done this evil in thy sight, " and being the child of God that he was, he cared that the eye of God was on him when he sinned.

When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

David was not justifying himself or blaming Original Sin, rather he was continuing his confession, that he like man was sinful by nature and had been sinners from birth. Because we are all descendants of Adam, when we are conceived, we also conceive sin.

[Sarah43]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

I do not think he is minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah. I think he is acknowledging that only God can make him clean, that when it comes to sin, only God can restore him. He cannot take back his sin, it is done, nor can he restore Uriah's life, or Bathsheba's pre-adulterous condition. He can only be repentant and be right with God and not do it again.

I don't think he is excusing himself or blaming original sin in verse 5. I think he is saying that we are all sinful and need instruction and correction from the Lord, that we may understand sin and how it hurts ourselves and others, and then teach others, as David wishes to do.

[servant for Christ]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

No, I don't think he is minimizing his sin, he knows it was wrong, but he is saying that his sin was greater against God than Bathsheba and Uriah. I think what David means is that is was against God and His Word. It was against everything that God stands for. No, he is not excusing himself or blaming Original Sin. He is saying that he is living in a sinful nature, flesh, through and through.

[charchar]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this? No David is not minimizing his sin but he is also acknowledging his sin against God. He is but the blame on are excusing himself from sin but he is doing something even more powerful, he is acknoledging all his sin that is within from birth. He is not excusing any of them. He wanted to get those sinful nature out of his sinful body.

[Marloes]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

No, David says that he sinned most of all against God.

No, he speaks about the Original Sin but he also says that God has spoken so there is no excuse.

[Paul G]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this?

ANS - David acknowledges that these actions against his fellow man constitute sin, which is transgression against God and His laws.

When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

ANS - He means that he is sinful through and through, from the very core of his being, and has been since his life began.

[royk]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" he is not minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah; he recognizes that his heart can not be close to God from his sin/actions, his "self-deceit"

When he mentioned sinfulness from before birth he is recognizing that as a human he is a sinner through and through, and that he can't be clean without putting God first. He describe sin as his rebellion, that inside he was twisted by earthly desire of someone so naturally beautiful, being naked [he should have been off at war], and his wickedness in ordering Uriah to be killed so as to have the woman for his own. [Not sure abortion was possible in those days]. Either way, he was headed to be a murderer, since he would not want Bathsheba to be stoned for her part in this sin.

[Nancy Palmer]

David is hardly minimizing his sin. Quite the contrary, David is anguishing that 'all sin' is against the Righteous One even though it might appear that his (David's) sin was specifically against Bathsheba an Uriah. There is no sin except that against the Holy God.

Having a 'sinful nature', i.e. even from our very moment of conception is NO excuse to sin especially when the Lord, the Giver of Life, is madly in love with us. It is with great consequence that we sin, only that God would provide the Lamb (Jesus) to bring us back into right relationship with Him.

[chillsey1]

David is simply recognizing that when he sins it doesn't only hurt the people on earth, but mostly God. God doesn't want us to sin and it hurts him to see us do this. But we are human, and not perfect and that's why God's love and compassion are good to know of cause through his grace and mercy can we be forgiven.

As I have said before, we are human and not perfect and we sin day in and day out, but that is why God said that he will forgive us 777 x7 daily,

[AKSquires]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

No, He is acknowledging that his offense is higher towards God, given that God created Him and that God is the one who sets in place laws like 'do not commit adultery.' Bathsheba and Uriah are human and yes he did sin against them, but his true forgiveness is only found in Christ.

Again, he is acknowledging that he is a sinner, not blaming himself or original sin. Things get passed down generations, and sin does too.

He means to repent and ask for forgiveness because you cannot escape original sin.You need to realize it is there and ask for forgiveness

[tammie7]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

Daivid was saying that he have sin again God.He is not blaming the original sin, His rebellion for not confession his sin had him so that he had to cover up the sin. But when he confesion the sin He was able to say that he had sin again God.

[Seeking His Face]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

No.

He is saying because of my great love for God( profession of). Before I committed the act, even in the planning and thought of it I sinned against you my God.

That I am by nature, have the tendency to, be selfish, self centered, sinful. All by myself i go astray, by my choice.

[Glo]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

No, he is not minimizing his sin. David has realized that all sin separates us from the Creator the one we claim to love. He is fully aware that God has seen and knows all and God has witnessed his sins. David is not making a excuse for sinning but acknowledging that man is born with a sinful nature. We are prone to sin.

[hanks]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6)

When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah?

No.

What does he mean by this?

He acknowledges his sin against Bathsheba and her husband Uriah. But realizes that all sin is first and foremost against our Lord. Not only has His law been broken, but His name has been brought into disrepute. It also places a barrier between us and God.

When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin?

No.

What does he mean by this?

Here again he acknowledges that we are all born sinners, and that there is not one, no one, who is without sin. We are all sinful in our very nature, and ultimately all we deserve is punishment and death.

[Moody Grad]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

I don't believe that David is minimizing his sin. Instead, he realizes that only God can judge him or cleanse him from his sins. When he mentions his sinfulness before birth, he is blaming Original Sin. Because Adam and Eve sinned, all people are born sinners. We cannot experience freedom from this sin until we confess our sins before God and accept His forgiveness and spiritual renewal. "For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." "For it is by grace, you have been saved. It is the gift of God, not by works, so that no one can boast."

[JanMary]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this?

I believe David is addressing the fact that he has broken God's Holy law and that only God has the ability to forgive and cleanse his unrighteousness.

No, I don't believe he's minimizing his sin against Bathseba and Uriah....He has killed Uriah and cannot receive forgiveness from him. He will have to live with the consequences of that murder as far as Bathsheba goes, in that she will always remember that her new husband ordered her husband killed in order to satisfy his own selfish desires! She can forgive him but only God can cleanse him! I would think one of those consequences might be fear of David or distrust.

When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

I think David is blaming Original Sin. I don't see any evidence of David excusing himself. When Nathan confronted him with the story of the only lamb being killed, David came out of denial and stopped any justifying or concealing of his sin. He reiterates that his mother was a sinner (and implied, was her mother before her), and is reminding God that though he deserves judgment, he's pleading for mercy.

[Old Jerry]

I don’t think that David is minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah he is acknowledging that the sin was against God. It was God’s law that he broke and he wanted to confess this sin to God.

When he mentions his sinfulness from birth he isn’t excusing himself or blaming the Original Sin he is just acknowledging that he is a sinful man and that he needs God forgiveness.

[Clarence]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

 

I have never thought of it in this way before. When we come before God and say "against you only have I sinned". I suppose the tenor of the passage is dependent upon the context in which it was written. David has come to God pleading for mercy and grace (v1). He is having it out with God. I'm sure that David realized the enormity of his sin, also against Uriah and many other people involved including the nation of the people of God (2 Samuel 12:7-13)-David had broken the trust of the people and his relationship with God because of his blatant sin. David is expressing his utter sinfulness, even before birth. He expresses his need for the presence of God in his life-the only one who can blot out his transgressions (Psalm 51:1,2).

[Barbiemac]

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

I don't believe David is diminishing his sin against Uriah and Bathsheba however he realizes that what he has done separates him from his relationship with God. In his disparity he understands that he is a sinner that needs to fight the fleshly desires that have been with him from conception. It is an acknowledgement of the battle we all deal with on a daily basis.

[Paulhoward]

 

Q2. (Psalm 51:3-6) When David says, "Against you only I have sinned" (4a) is he minimizing his sin against Bathsheba and Uriah? What does he mean by this? When he mentions his sinfulness from before birth is he excusing himself or blaming Original Sin? What does he mean by this?

When David says that he has sinned "only against" the Lord he is speaking figuratively in that ultimately Bathsheba & her husband are both God's creatures & ultimately belong to God. It is like us hurting a child , we have really hurt the parent. He is not minimising the sin, just the opposite, the sin is so grievous because he has offended Almighty God which is part of the basis of Nathan's prophecy.

The reference to sinful from birth could include original sin , but sums up his whole life that it has always been affected by sin, perhaps lustful thoughts, or relationships with women that have been far from pure, which would be true for most men. As it says in Psalm 119, "How can a young man keep his way pure", almost as youth it is impossible!!!!!!!

He may want to include many of these episodes in his confession, which would make a lot of sense & will make for greater freedom in the future as it deals with other places the devil could use as an entry point.

 

[Godswriter]

He is not minimizing his sin at all. When you take the text as a whole it speaks of how God is greater than King David for God chose him to begin with. For to God alone was he responsible for the kingdom of Israel. Especially when the king chooses to sin the king is accountable to God only for that sin. He means that he must repent of the sin to God for God is His creator and King over all. He is speaking of Original Sin and how it causes one to sin and causes one to commit acts of evil like murder. He is neither blaming Original Sin or excusing himself. He is stating that he is stating that he is a sinful being who is in need of redemption like us. The body and mind grew up in a state of corruption to begin with.