johnj Posted June 26, 2012 Report Share Posted June 26, 2012 Who decides what makes a 'good' marriage or a 'bad' one? Are we to decide for ourselves if the things God causes to happen are 'good' or 'bad'? What He causes let no man undo. It seems to me that what we are being told is that God is in control of all things and should he cause a marriage, then it's His will. Maybe it's when we decide for ourselves (rather than for Him) that things go sour. If I truely believed a marriage was intended by God, Blessed by Him and was part of His plan - whose ways are unfathonable to me - then how could I decide differently? What 'right' would I have? Does my 'happiness' or 'acceptance' trump His will? People may too often believe whatever they want is God's will. A marriage has become an easy thing to dispose. But considering this question has caused me to compare a marriage situation to others that people find themselves facing. Could someone with cancer say "This isn't God's will for me. It was a mistake. I am going to walk away from this." Or someone who lost a child. " This isn't God's will for me. I'm going to take charge of the situation and fix things." Our lives are filled with disappointments and problems. Maybe one is marital. But we endure because we trust and have faith in our Lord to know what is best. It is His plan and His will to which we all surrender. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tgandy Posted September 28, 2013 Report Share Posted September 28, 2013 After looking up Rabbis Hillel and Shammai I would say Jesus seemed to side with Rabbi Shammai. He appeared to be the stricter of the two Rabbis. The only exception Jesus gives for divorce is marital unfaithfulness. Deuteronomy 24:1-4 states once divorced and remarried to other, they can never be remarried to each other. The intention is to make people think twice before jumping into and out of marriage. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DebLam3teach Posted October 31, 2014 Report Share Posted October 31, 2014 Jesus sided with Rabbi Shamma's saying that divorce was wrong except for the instance of marital unfaithfulness. In Deuteronomy 24:1-4, Moses said a man could write a certificate of divorce and send the wife away (along with dowry) for only the reason of fornication or sexual impurity. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Eager Bver Posted December 2, 2014 Report Share Posted December 2, 2014 With whom did Jesus side: Rabbi Hillel or Rabbi Shammai? What exception does Jesus give to his prohibition of divorce? How does this exception relate to Deuteronomy 24:1-4? Jesus sided with Rabbi Shammai who believed divorce in the case of unchastity. Fornication is the exception Jesus gave to the prohibition of divorce as it is unfaithfulness in marriage. This relates to Deut. 24:1-4 in that the first husband divorces her and she remarries. The second husband divorces her. The first husband cannot take her back as it is an abomination to God. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
webster52 Posted February 16, 2015 Report Share Posted February 16, 2015 With whom did Jesus side: Rabbi Hillel or Rabbi Shammai? The interpretation of the stricter school of Shammai, reflecting unchastity as the only reason for divorce, is closer to Jesus’ teaching in Matthew 19:6 “ … , they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.” What exception does Jesus give to His prohibition of divorce? Matthew 19:9 says, “And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. How does this exception relate to Deuteronomy 24:1-4? In the text of Deuteronomy 24:1-4, Moses does not command divorce. There is only one command in that text and the command is not to married a defiled adulterous. The Pharisees were actually advocating the self-righteousness of divorce by turning Deuteronomy 24:1-4 into a command to divorce, which it is not. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JoanG Posted March 9, 2015 Report Share Posted March 9, 2015 Jesus does not agree with either Rabbi on this issue. Jesus strictly sticks to the teaching that once married there is no reason for a husband and a wife to divorce. Only God should have the power to separate them because He is the one that joins them together in one flesh. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Old Jerry Posted April 27, 2015 Report Share Posted April 27, 2015 It sounds to me that Jesus was siding with Rabbi Shammai. The only exception that Jesus gives to his prohibition of divorce is adultery. I don’t know how this exception relates to Deuteronomy 24:1-4 because that says that if the woman displeases man he can hand her a certificate of divorce. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Karen11 Posted February 14, 2018 Report Share Posted February 14, 2018 On 12/19/2007 at 10:19 PM, Pastor Ralph said: Q1. (Matthew 5:27-32; 19:1-12) With whom did Jesus side: Rabbi Hillel or Rabbi Shammai? What exception does Jesus give to his prohibition of divorce? How does this exception relate to Deuteronomy 24:1-4? Jesus sided somewhat with Rabbi Shammal. Unfaithfulness. I don't think it does. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MosesSole Posted July 19, 2020 Report Share Posted July 19, 2020 On 12/19/2007 at 10:19 PM, Pastor Ralph said: Q1. (Matthew 5:27-32; 19:1-12) With whom did Jesus side: Rabbi Hillel or Rabbi Shammai? What exception does Jesus give to his prohibition of divorce? He was of the position in alignment with Shammai teaching in that divorce should only be allowable in the event of infidelity. How does this exception relate to Deuteronomy 24:1-4? There's something in here about a wife being indecent in some way which was a cause for divorce. My question is, why is it always the woman's fault? I've known plenty of indecent men, and should not women have a right to call them out for divorce? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Irmela Posted November 1, 2020 Report Share Posted November 1, 2020 I think Jesus sided with God's original plan, viz., what God has put together, let no man separate, this being a picture of Gen 2:24 of the man leaving mother and father and cleaving to his wife and they shall become one flesh. The exception that Jesus gave is unfaithfulness or sexual immorality. Deut 24 speaks about something "indecent" about her ... this being the "nakedness of a thing". This nakedness could possibly mean uncovering something of the husband's behaviour, speaking about him, not keeping their private things "private" but sharing them with all and sundry - having a "loose" tongue - this can be taken as unfaithfulness and also includes sexual unfaithfulness or immorality. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lisa Wolf Posted September 10 Report Share Posted September 10 Q1. (Matthew 5:27-32; 19:1-12) With whom did Jesus side: Rabbi Hillel or Rabbi Shammai? What exception does Jesus give to his prohibition of divorce? How does this exception relate to Deuteronomy 24:1-4? Jesus sided with His Father, 'What God has joined, let not men separate.' The exception he gives to His prohibition of divorce is sexual immorality. In Deuteronomy 24, permission is given for men to divorce their wives. However, it's specified that if a woman is divorced by a second husband, the first husband cannot remarry her because she has been defiled which is detestable to God. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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